ĐĎॹá>ţ˙ ŞŹţ˙˙˙¨Š˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙˙ěĽÁ%` đż#WbjbjNŕNŕ €,Š,ŠO˙˙˙˙˙˙¤źźźźźźź$ŕHZHZHZP˜Z´ZÄŕ,ˆ2„[„[š[š[š[u\u\u\Ť‡­‡­‡­‡­‡­‡­‡$^‰hƋ†Ń‡źy^u\u\y^y^чźźš[š[Ű懇l‡l‡ly^ô źš[źš[Ť‡‡ly^Ť‡‡l‡lâ݂¤źźa„š[x[ đ[°đAçÉHZmh@ƒŤ‡ü‡0,ˆ—ƒĘLŒ­k‚LŒ,a„a„ŽLŒźu\vë\T‡l?]Dƒ]öu\u\u\чч/lXu\u\u\,ˆy^y^y^y^ŕŕŕ„MdTäŕŕŕdTŕŕŕźźźźźź˙˙˙˙ Pathology Written Exam IV 1. A patient is said to have microcytic anemia if his: A. Hematocrit and mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration are low. B. Hematocrit and mean corpuscular volume are low. C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration is low. D. Mean corpuscular volume is low. E. Hematocrit and mean corpuscular hemoglobin are low. 2. An anemic patient can have a normal hematocrit if: A. She is severely dehydrated. B. She has chronic lung disease. C. She is severely fluid-overloaded. D. She has a hemoglobin variant with low oxygen affinity. E. She has a hemoglobin variant with high oxygen affinity. 3. The body compensates for anemia by: A. Directing more blood flow to the kidneys. B. Directing less blood flow to the brain. C. Decreasing the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. D. Increasing the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. E. Increasing the activity of Krebs cycle enzymes in the red cells. 4. In cases of severe anemia that develop over a long period of time, all the following symptoms/signs are observed, EXCEPT: A. Headache B. Tinnitus C. Orthostatic tachycardia. D. Shortness of breath on exertion. E. Easy fatiguability 5. Which physiologic compartment holds the greatest amount of iron? A. Hemosiderin in the reticuloendothelial system B. Transferrin in plasma C. Ferritin in plasma D. Hemoglobin in red cells E. Myoglobin in skeletal muscle 6. The lab measurement referred to as the total iron binding capacity (TIBC) is a reflection of which of the following? A. Iron content of the red cells B. Concentration of ferritin in plasma C. Total body iron stores D. Concentration of transferrin in plasma E. Iron content of the plasma 7. When iron deficiency develops in a middle-aged man, what is the most likely cause? A. Interference of iron absorption by excess alcohol intake B. Loss of blood from a urinary tract lesion C. Loss of iron due to chronic hemolysis D. Poor diet due to depression E. Loss of blood from an alimentary tract lesion 8. When iron deficiency develops in a 30-year-old woman who is not pregnant, the most likely cause is: A. Hemorrhoids B. Bulimia C. Menstrual blood loss D. Cancer of the colon or rectum E. Reflux esophagus 9. Any of the following can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, EXCEPT: A. Strict adherence to a vegan diet. B. Immune-mediated destruction of gastric parietal cells. C. Surgical removal of the stomach. D. Inflammatory lesion of the proximal jejunum. E. Inflammatory lesion of the terminal ileum. 10. Folate deficiency produces all the following, EXCEPT: A. Nuclear/cytoplasmic asynchrony in red cell precursors. B. Enlarged, oval-shaped red blood cells. C. Ineffective erythropoiesis. D. Demyelination of neurons. E. Anemia. 11. In hemolytic anemia, which of the following is decreased? A. Mean corpuscular volume B. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration C. Serum haptoglobin concentration D. Serum methemalbumin concentration E. Reticulocyte count 12. Which of the following conditions causes hemolysis by direct physical trauma to the red cells? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura C. Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia E. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy 13. Which of the following diseases is caused by an autosomal dominant gene? A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency B. Hereditary spherocytosis C. Pyruvate kinase deficiency D. Hemoglobin M disease E. None of the above 14. Hemoglobin C disease is characterized by which of the following clinical findings? A. "Fish vertebrae" B. Leg ulcers C. Autosplenectomy D. Hemolytic anemia E. All of the above 15. Hemoglobin E disease is seen most frequently in patient populations native to or originating from which region? A. China B. Japan C. Sub-Saharan Africa D. Southeast Asia E. The Mediterranean 16. Structural hemoglobin variants that have abnormally high affinity for oxygen would be expected to produce which clinical finding? A. Heinz bodies B. Intraerythrocytic crystals C. Cyanosis D. Hemolytic anemia E. Polycythemia 17. In beta-thalassemia major, anemia is the result of: A. Deficient hemoglobin A production B. Ineffective erythropoiesis C. Hemolysis D. Relative folate deficiency E. All of the above 18. Acute cutaneous graft-vs.-host disease is characterized by: A. Blistering in severe cases B. Typical occurance around 40 days post-transplantation C. Clinical resemblance to scleroderma D. Most frequently-affected population being renal transplant recipients E. Reaction against histocompatibility antigens on donor cells 19. You perform a skin biopsy on a 5 year old girl who has a few 3mm umbilicated papules on her face. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. dermatophyte infection B. scabies C. condyloma acuminatum D. molluscum contagiosum E. seborrheic dermatitis 20. You are taking call for one of your colleagues who is out of town. One of his 50-year-old patients calls you to say that he has broken out in a rash on his hands that resembles a "bulls-eye". What is the first thing you ask him? A. Does it itch? B. Have you been previously diagnosed with pemphigus vulgaris? C. Did you recently undergo arterial catheterization? D. Are you taking any medications? E. Did this happen after you went out in the sun? 21. You perform a skin biopsy on a 25-year-old woman with a blistering condition. The routine pathology report says "Subepidermal blister with neutrophilic microabscesses in the dermal papillae". The immunofluorescence report says "Granular deposition of IgA at the epidermal-dermal junction". What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bullous pemphigoid B. Dermatitis herpetiformis C. Porphyria cutanea tarda D. Pemphigoid gestationis E. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita 22. Blisters are LEAST likely to occur in which location? A. Just above the stratum basalis B. Beneath the dermis C. Just beneath the stratum basalis D. Beneath the stratum corneum E. Within the stratum spinosum 23. What are you trying to preserve by submitting skin biopsies to pathology in Michel's media? A. parasites B. bacterial toxins C. immunoglobulins D. drugs E. cholesterol emboli 24. Your renal failure patient visits his grandson in the newborn nursery. Not long thereafter, he develops fever and his skin becomes bri ht , followed by formation of large flaccid bullae which easily rupture. Several babies in the nursery also develop the same condition. Which statement is true? A. Culture of his skin lesions will be positive for Staphylococcus aureus B. This condition may clinically resemble toxic epidermal necrolysis C. He has a better prognosis than the babies in the nursery D. Your patient can be managed at home with steroids E. If a biopsy is performed, the cleft will be located in a subepidermal location 25. Which of the following is uncharacteristic of smallpox? A. Lesions on the same area of the body in different stages of development B. Involvement of palms and soles C. Lesions which feel like "pellets" under the skin D. Infectious scabs E. Significant febrile prodrome 26. Mothers of Infants with ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn are usually of which blood group? A. AB B. Equally likely among ABO groups C. O D. A E. B 27. Which factor(s) contributing to hemolytic disease of the newborn are removed during exchange transfusion? A. Antibody B. Antigen, antibody and bilirubin C. Antigen D. Antigen and antibody E. Antigen and bilirubin 28. In the ABO blood group, mating of which two phenotypes can produce offspring with each of the four common blood types? A. ABandB B. A and B C. AB and AB D. AB and O E. AB and A. 29. The majority of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions are caused by: A. Undetected antibody in the patient recipient B. Clerical or managerial error C. Leukocyte/platelet antibodies D. Massive transfusion E. Undetected antibody in the donor blood unit 30. A 28 year old gravida 2 para 0 is seen for the first time at 28 weeks gestation. She has an anti D titer of 1:128. Management may include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Rh Immune globulin B. Intrauterine transfusion C. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling(PUBS) D. Ultrasound E. Amniocentesis 31. If a group A, Rh positive patient requires fresh frozen plasma (FFP) but no group A FFP is available, the substitute product of choice would be: A. Group AB FFP B. Group B FFP C. Group O FFP D. Group A red blood cells E. None of the above 32. Which infectious agent can be transmitted by WBCs present in a blood component? A. Treponema pallidum B. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) C. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) D. Plasmodium vivax E. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) 33. Mrs G. is a pleasant 68 year old female with severe coronary artery disease and anemia due to myelodysplastic syndrome. Her hemoglobin is 6.0g/dL, and you would like to transfuse her with red blood cells to increase her hemoglobin to 10g/dL. How many units of red blood cells should you order from the blood bank? A. 1 unit of RBC B. 5 units of RBC C. 6 units of RBC D. 4 units of RBC E. 2 units of RBC 34. An infant is born to an Rh negative mother with anti D. The father is Rh positive. The mother did not receive antenatal care during this pregnancy. Your attending asks you to order the necessary laboratory tests on the baby. All of the following are appropriate EXCEPT: A. Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) B. Serum bilirubin levels C. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit D. ABO and Rh type E. Coagulation profile (PT/PTT) 35. In the case above, the blood bank resident tells you she is going to make sure that the units of blood for this baby will be gamma irradiated. This is to prevent: A. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction. B. Transfusion related graft versus host disease C. febrile non hemolytic transfusion reaction D. Transfusion related acute lung injury E. Allergic reactions to infused plasma proteins 36. All of the following are indications for the transfusion of plasma EXCEPT: A. A 54 year old female with sepsis and disseminated intravascular coagulopathy B. A 75 year old female on wafarin who presents with retroperitoneal hemorrhage C. A 36 year trauma victim who is relatively stable with IV normal saline D. A 66 year old male with chronic liver disease and gastrointestinal bleeding E. A 24 year old female with congenital factor V deficiency 37. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Osteopetrosis is a common disorder due to osteoclast dysfunction. B. Osteomalacia, like rickets, has severe skeletal deformities at sites of rapid growth. C. Paget's disease has an increased risk of associated skin lesions. D. The autosomal dominant form of osteogenesis imperfecta is compatible with life. E. Achondroplasia is the most common lethal form of dwarfism. 38. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning avascular necrosis: A. Microscopic findings are dead osteocytes in lacunae with necrotic overlying cartilage. B. It is a common condition. C. It can usually be prevented. D. It occurs only in the epiphysis. E. It is most often due to thrombosis or embolism as in decompression sickness. 39. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Osteomyelitis is the inflammation of bone and bone marrow. B. Most osteomyelitis is caused by pyogenic bacteria and mycobacteria. C. The "involucrum" refers to the inflammatory reaction with release of toxins and destructive enzymes. D. The location of the inflammation varies with age. E. The "sequestrum" is the area of bone necrosis. 40. Which statement is TRUE regarding osteoarthritis? A. It is seen mostly in males. B. It may have extra-articular manifestations. C. It is the most common type of joint disease. D. It is usually seen in younger individuals. E. Autoimmunity plays a key role, but the cause is unknown. 41. Tumors of adipose tissue: A. When malignant, always behave in a low-grade fashion. B. When malignant, will always be obviously sarcomatous histologically. C. If malignant will have the lipoblast as a common type of cell. D. Are more likely to be malignant in the subcutaneous tissue. E. Are found commonly in children. 42. Which statement about synovial sarcoma is FALSE? A. Simple excision is curative with 100% survival at 10 years. B. It often has a biphasic pattern of epithelial gland formations with spindle cell sarcoma component. C. It occurs in the lower extremities, shoulder and elbow. D. The tumor grows close to joints but rarely involves the synovium. E. This tumor affects teenagers and young adults. MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1), choose the letter of the most closely related item in column 2. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. COLUMN I COLUMN 2 43. Achondroplasia A. Deficiencies in Type I collagen 44. Paget's Disease resulting in too little bone. 45. Osteomalacia B. Disease of growth plate with no 46. Osteogenesis Imperfecta changes in longevity, intelligence or 47. Rickets reproductive status. C. Osteoclastic bone resorption followed by excessive disordered bone formation. D. Characterized by defect in matrix mineralization, most often related to lack of vitamin D or disturbance in its metabolism. E. "Marble bone disease" due to osteoclast dysfunction. MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1), choose the letter of the most closely related item in column 2. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. COLUMN I COLUMN 2 48. Salmonella osteomyelitis A. The cause of the majority of pyogenic 49. Group B strep osteomyelitis osteomyelitis. 50. Staph. aureus osteomyelitis B. Elderly patients with peripheral 51. E. Coli and Pseudomonas vascular disease osteomyelitis C. IV drug abusers D. Sickle cell disease E. Neonates MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1), choose the letter of the most closely related item in column 2. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2 52. Anklyosing spondylitis A. Systemic onset, teenagers 53. Reiter's syndrome B. Aging or "wear and tear" 54. Rheumatoid arthritis C. "Bamboo spine" 55. Osteoarthritis D. Arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis 56. Still's disease E. Pannus formation and subcutaneous nodules MATCHING: For each numbered item (Column 1), choose the letter of the most closely related item in column 2. Each answer may be used once, more than once, or not at all. COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2 57. Chondroma A. "Chinese letters" 58. Chondrosarcoma B. Teenaged patient with diaphyseal 59. Osteoid osteoma lesion involving soft tissue. 60. Osteosarcoma C. Pain, worse at night, relieved by aspirin 61. Fibrous dysplasia D. Elderly patient with lesion of shoulder E. Multiple in Ollier's disease MATCHING: For each numbered item (column 1), choose the letter of the most closely related item in column 2. Each answer can be used once, more than once, or not at all. COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2 62. Seborrheic keratosis A. Spongiosis 63. Acute eczema B. Melanocyte proliferation 64. Psoriasis C. Keratinocyte proliferation 65. Intradermal nevus D. Papillary dermal band of lymphocytes 66. Lichen planus E. Papillary dermal band of neutrophils. 67. A 2-year-old boy was sent to a famous cancer center for treatment of "melanoma." The pathology slides were reviewed and the alternative diagnosis of a benign lesion was suggested. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Spitz nevus B. Erythema dyschromicum perstans C. Halo nevus D. Becker's nevus E. Nevus araneus 68. A 14-year-old boy had a recent alarming increase in "wartiness" of his birthmark on the forehead. It previously had been kind of flat and yellowish. Most likely he has: A. Verruciform xanthoma B. Xanthoma tuberosum C. Adenoma sebaceum D. Nevus sebaceus E. Necrobiosis lipoidica 69. Which lesion is characterized by vascular proliferation? A. Keratoacanthoma B. Paget's disease of the nipple C. Bowen's disease D. Becker's nevus E. Kaposi sarcoma 70. A 45-year-old woman presented with a firm, indurated, brown nodule on the leg. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Neurofibroma B. Spitz nevus C. Becker's nevus D. Dermatofibroma E. Keratoacanthoma 71. A 45-year-old man presents with recent onset of weakness and fatigue. He has petechiael hemorrhages and an enlarged spleen. Review of the peripheral blood smear reveals the presence of a few blasts. Which of the following would establish a diagnosis of acute leukemia? A. Finding an Auer rod in one of the blasts B. Abnormal cytogenetic studies C. Finding 20% blasts in the bone marrow D. Flow cytometry immunophenotyping of the bone marrow E. Peripheral blood pancytopenia with blasts 72. Which of the following is the most common malignancy in children under 15 years of age? A. Medulloblastoma B. Wilm tumor C. Retinoblastoma D. Neuroblastoma E. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 73. A 65-year-old man with pancytopenia is found to have myelodysplasia. This patient is at risk for developing which of the following? A. Infections B. Bleeding C. Acute leukemia D. Transfusion dependency E. All of the above 74. A 60-year-old man with marked hepatosplenomegaly has a WBC count of 150,000/pL, anemia and thrombocytosis. Which of the following findings would be most consistent with a diagnosis of chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. 30% blasts in the bone marrow B. Monocytopenia C. Increased basophils in the peripheral blood D. Cytogenetic studies showing t(8;14) E. Increased LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) score of 250 75. A 55-year-old man complains of fatigue and is found to have a peripheral blood erythrocytosis. His WBC and platelet counts are normal. Further evaluation reveals decreased arterial blood oxygen saturation and increased erythropoietin level. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be present in this patient? A. Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetic studies B. Budd-Chiari syndrome C. Dehydration D. Renal tumor producing erythropoietin E. Evidence of emphysema on chest x-ray and physical exam 76. A 60-year-old woman complains of low back pain and is found to have a T2 vertebral body compression fracture. Physical examination does not reveal hepatosplenomegaly or lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show a normocytic anemia, normal white blood cell and platelet counts, hypercalcemia, and an increased globulin level. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. B12 deficiency B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. T-cell lymphoblastic lymphoma D. Plasma cell (multiple) myeloma E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia 77. A 49-year-old man presents with bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome and is found to have a small amount of an IgG monoclonal protein. Bone marrow biopsy reveals a slight increase in plasma cells. Evaluation also indicates renal insufficiency. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? A. Amyloidosis B. Reactive plasmacytosis C. Hodgkin lymphoma D. Burkitt lymphoma E. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia 78. A 29-year-old woman complains of low-grade fever and occasional night sweats. Physical examination reveals isolated right cervical lymphadenopathy. Her CBC is normal. Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis? A. Burkitt leukemia/lymphoma B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C. Chronic myelogenous leukemia D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma E. Hodgkin lymphoma 79. A 16-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with complaints of difficulty breathing. CT scan of the chest demonstrates a large mediastinal mass and a pleural effusion. A biopsy of the mass reveals lymphoblastic lymphoma. Which of the following is the patient MOST LIKELY to have in addition to the lymphoma? A. Acute leukemia B. t(9;2 2) in the tumor cells C. Osteolytic bone lesions D. Abdominal mass E. Gingival infiltrate 80. Mycosis fungoides is characterized by: A. Vasculitis and tissue necrosis B. Malignant proliferation of CD4+ T cells in the skin C. Infection with Candida albicans D. 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