ࡱ>  bjbjO O =-a-a||lV\\8#####$$$7777777$T9<84$$448##87774R##7747777#%~C5V77,80\87<7<7<7$$5* 7?.<{1v$$$887 $$$\84444<$$$$$$$$$| : FBLA TEST PREP FOR ECONOMICS 1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. ____ 1. Which of the following is a service? a.restaurant mealb.taxi cab ridec.dry-cleaning fluidd.concert t-shirt ____ 2. Scarcity is a.not enough productive resources and unlimited needs.b.resources to meet all needs.c.few needs.d.few products. ____ 3. Productive resources are a.jobs that produce products.b.inputs that produce goods and services that people want.c.available in unlimited quantities.d.plentiful. ____ 4. Economics is about a.jobs.b.money.c.choices.d.inexpensive items. ____ 5. The name given to an individual who develops a new product or finds a better way to produce an existing one for a profit is a(n) a.worker.b.manager.c.entrepreneur.d.executive. ____ 6. An example of a renewable resource is a.oil.b.coal.c.copper.d.timber. ____ 7. An example of an exhaustible resource is a.timber.b.corn.c.oil.d.cotton. ____ 8. The assumption of rational self-interest means a.people generally will make the best choices for themselves.b.people only think of others when making choices.c.that economic choices are limited.d.that everyone makes the same choices. ____ 9. The name given to a form of economics which examines the factors that influence individual economic choices and how markets coordinate the choices of various decision makers is: a.socioeconomics.b.microeconomics.c.choice economics.d.macroeconomics. ____ 10. The opportunity cost of a chosen item or activity is a.how much money it will cost.b.how many chances you will have to buy it.c.the value of the best alternative you must up.d.the cost of the choice. ____ 11. A cost that you have already incurred and cannot recover is known as a a.lost cost.b.positive cost.c.negative cost.d.sunk cost. ____ 12. Of the four types of decision makers in the economy, which one plays the leading role? a.firmsb.governmentsc.householdsd.the rest of the world ____ 13. The name given to a form of economics that focuses on the performance of the economy as a whole, especially the national economy, is a.federal economics.b.microeconomics.c.consumer economics.d.macroeconomics. ____ 14. An opinion a.is always true depending on who said it.b.cannot be shown to be true or false by reference to the facts.c.is a positive economic statement.d.is rational. ____ 15. Rational decision makers will change the status quo as long as a.it is allowed.b.the expected marginal benefit exceeds the expected marginal cost.c.the decision to do so is based on the newest economic theories.d.the expected marginal benefit will not exceed the expected marginal cost. ____ 16. What legal protections are given to resource owners that allow them the freedom to use their resources as they see fit? a.monopoliesb.voting rightsc.property rightsd.economic rights ____ 17. Which of the following is not true of a pure market economy? a.Resource owners have property rights.b.Markets are regulated by the government.c.Prices guide resources to the most productive use.d.Markets answer the what, how, and for whom questions. ____ 18. An example of a public good, in an economic context, would be a.national defense spending.b.lower new car prices.c.longer library hours.d.cheaper gas prices. ____ 19. An economic system in which all resources are government-owned and production is coordinated by the central plans of government is known as a(n) a.pure market economy.b.externalities.c.centrally planned economy.d.monopoly economy. ____ 20. The economy of the United States can be described as a a.traditional economy.b.pure market economy.c.centrally planned economy.d.mixed economy. ____ 21. Transitional economies are in the process of a.privatization.b.monopoly building.c.increased central planning.d.getting rid of private property. ____ 22. Traditional economies are often shaped by a.labor unions.b.customs and religions.c.communism.d.markets. ____ 23. What factor might best help an economy to grow? a.less immigrationb.labor force increasesc.cleaner aird.lowering educational standards ____ 24. The law of comparative advantage helps explain a.why some products do better than others.b.opportunity costs.c.how economists work.d.why a person talented in many things can get more done by specializing. ____ 25. Being able to do something using fewer resources than other producers require would give you a(n) a.monopoly.b.absolute advantage.c.comparative advantage.d.disadvantage. ____ 26. The best known medium of exchange in the United States is a.barter.b.money.c.stock.d.bonds. ____ 27. A division of labor a.separates tasks.b.separates men from women.c.requires every worker to perform the same tasks.d.separates resources. ____ 28. Certain parts of the United States have a comparative advantage in producing similar goods. Which pair of factors below would have the greatest affect in creating the advantage? a.climate, no capital stockb.cheap labor, climatec.work force skills, few citiesd.natural resources, capital stock ____ 29. Which type of economy produces the highest standard of living for its citizens? a.transitionalb.market-orientedc.traditionald.centrally planned ____ 30. The most important economic decision maker in market economies is a.corporate leaders.b.labor unions.c.the president.d.households. ____ 31. It is assumed that households try to increase their level of satisfaction and sense of well-being. This is called a.utility management.b.increased effort.c.utility effort.d.utility maximization. ____ 32. The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain around a.1650.b.1750.c.1850.d.1950. ____ 33. Suppose that you own a company that silkscreens t-shirts. The cost of producing one t-shirt image is $1.50. The revenue your earn on each t-shirt is $3.75. What is your profit per t-shirt? a.$5.00b.$5.625c.$2.25d.$2.50 ____ 34. Property rights that protect the writer of a song are known as a.real property rights.b.corporate property rights.c.intellectual property rights.d.personal property rights. ____ 35. When Adam Smith wrote of the invisible hand of the market, he was referring to a.monopoly.b.competition.c.greed.d.scarcity. ____ 36. The group of laws that reduce anticompetitive behavior and promote competition in the marketplace where competition is desirable are known as a.fair laws.b.trust laws.c.antitrust laws.d.business laws. ____ 37. A public utility is a.a place that is open to the public.b.a government-owned and regulated monopoly.c.an individually owned monopoly open to the public.d.a corporation. ____ 38. The function of monetary policy is to a.ensure uniform currency.b.determine denomination of money.c.encourage inflation.d.regulate the money supply. ____ 39. By-products of consumption or consumption that imposes costs on third parties are known as a.negative externalities.b.exclusive externalities.c.positive externalities.d.non-exclusive externalities. ____ 40. What is the primary source of poverty in the United States? a.too many poor peopleb.large numbers of unemployed peoplec.too few college educated peopled.births to single mothers ____ 41. Social insurance programs tend to a.redistribute income from rich to poor and young to old.b.provide automobile insurance.c.create jobs.d.increase welfare rolls. ____ 42. The earned income tax credit a.causes lower income families to pay a higher income tax.b.causes middle-class families to get a greater income tax refund.c.supplements wages to the working poor.d.supplements wages to the hardest working people in the United States. ____ 43. What is the most true statement about poverty? a.People below the poverty level are lazy.b.It is a relative term.c.Poverty is the same all over.d.People can always climb out of poverty through hard work. ____ 44. If the demand for a product is low and the supply is high, the price will soon be a.lower.b.higher.c.unaffected.d.double the amount. ____ 45. Real income refers to a.how much money you actually earn.b.your income minus taxes.c.how many goods and services you can buy.d.your income minus taxes and benefits. ____ 46. Which of the following cannot happen to a firms total revenue when it lowers it price? a.Total revenue will grow if many additional products are sold.b.Total revenue will grow if many fewer products are sold.c.Total revenue will remain unchanged if there is a proportional increase in the number sold.d.Total revenue will fall if few additional products are sold. ____ 47. Which of the following parts of a consumer budget would be most price elastic? a.housingb.cablec.telephoned.automobile ____ 48. One of the reasons consumers choose substitutes is that a.no one can tell the difference.b.they are relatively cheaper.c.they are made in Japan.d.they are the same price and there are more of them. ____ 49. What accounts for the variety of popular music today? a.There are a lot of musicians.b.The different tastes of consumers.c.Some people have no talent.d.There are many different instruments. ____ 50. If suddenly a large population increase occurred, what impact would it have on the housing market? a.Prices would remain constant.b.There would be a surplus of homes on the market.c.It would shift the demand curve to the left.d.It would shift the demand curve to the right. ____ 51. What is the biggest cost of finding a substitute for a product to a consumer? a.timeb.pricec.scarcityd.opportunity ____ 52. Which item would provide you with the least marginal utility? a.a second copy of the daily newspaperb.a second drink of water when youre thirstyc.a second pair of sneakersd.a second car ____ 53. The market demand curve shows a.the demand of an individual consumer.b.the number of markets in a specific area.c.the total number of markets.d.the total quantity demanded per period by all consumers at various prices. ____ 54. Elasticity, in economic terms, is another word for a.adaptability.b.adjustment.c.responsiveness.d.reconciliation. ____ 55. Suppose that at a price of $6 a pound, the quantity of Kobe beef demanded is 1,000,000 pounds, and at a price of $36 a pound, the quantity demanded is 200,000 pounds. At these prices and quantities, the demand is a.inelastic.b.elastic.c.unit elastic.d.marginally elastic. ____ 56. The demand for products or services for which there are no substitutes tends to be a.somewhat elastic.b.unit elastic.c.quite inelastic.d.perfectly elastic. ____ 57. What generally leads entrepreneurs to accept the risk of business failure? a.They are an adventurous group.b.They enjoy taking a risk.c.the profit incentive.d.the supply curve. ____ 58. Supply indicates how much of a good producers a.produce.b.are willing and able to offer.c.have sold.d.have yet to sell. ____ 59. The law of supply states that the quantity supplied is usually related to its a.color.b.cost to produce.c.price.d.labor costs. ____ 60. The term quantity supplied refers to a.the entire supply schedule or supply curve.b.the supply of all producers in the market.c.a particular amount offered for sale at a particular price.d.the number of individual producers. ____ 61. How does a decrease in price affect a producer? a.The producer becomes more willing but less able to supply goods.b.The producer becomes less willing but more able to supply goods.c.The producer becomes more willing and more able to supply goods.d.The producer becomes less willing and less able to supply goods. ____ 62. Elasticity of supply indicates a.how adaptable the supply is.b.how responsive producers are to a change in price.c.how much the product costs.d.how many products are in stock. ____ 63. Which statement is most valid? a.The elasticity of supply typically is not affected by time at all.b.The elasticity of supply is typically greater the longer the period of adjustment.c.The elasticity of supply is typically lesser the longer the period of adjustment.d.The elasticity of supply is typically greater the more of the products that are on hand. ____ 64. If soybean farmers expect the price of soybeans to decrease soon, which of the following actions would these farmers most likely take? a.They would decrease production immediately.b.They would increase production immediately.c.They would probably do nothing.d.They would store most of the soybeans they produce. ____ 65. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of supply? a.producer expectationsb.technology used to make the goodc.consumer expectationsd.the number of sellers in the market ____ 66. Which factor might best influence supply? a.consumer expectationsb.workers expectationsc.government expectationsd.producer expectations ____ 67. In competitive markets, a firms marginal revenue is the a.bid price.b.wholesale price.c.market price.d.materials price. ____ 68. Economies of scale are reflected by a.rising labor costs.b.a firms long-run cost declines as the firm grows larger.c.rising raw material costs.d.a firms long-run cost declines as the firm grows smaller. ____ 69. If a firms marginal revenue exceeds its marginal cost, it should a.increase its production.b.leave its production the same.c.decrease its production.d.close down. ____ 70. Which of the following is not true of the role of prices in a market economy? a.Higher prices encourage producers to allocate fewer resources to the production of the good.b.Higher prices encourage consumers to economize by finding substitute goods.c.Higher prices encourage producers to allocate fewer resources to the production of other goods.d.Prices help people recognize market opportunities. ____ 71. The market clearing price is also called the a.equilibrium price.b.fair market price.c.unit price.d.sale price. ____ 72. What is an important indicator about the relative scarcity of a product or service? a.how well known it isb.the invisible handc.its cost of productiond.its market price ____ 73. All of the following reduce demand EXCEPT a.an increase in consumer income.b.the number of consumers declinesc.a decrease in consumer income.d.a decrease in price of a substitute. ____ 74. What might cause a shift in the supply curve to the right in the grain business? a.a decrease in the number of farmsb.a technological breakthrough to increase yieldsc.an increase in the cost of harvesting graind.discovery of a substitute for grain ____ 75. As long as the demand curve slopes downward, a leftward shift of the supply curve a.increases supply.b.increases price and increases the quantity.c.increases price but reduces the quantity.d.decreases demand. ____ 76. Allocative efficiency occurs when a.labor works faster.b.management is well-organized.c.no raw materials are wasted.d.firms produce the output that is most valued by customers. ____ 77. One of the aims of productive efficiency is to a.have good labor relations.b.have a good reputation.c.produce a good or service at the lowest possible cost.d.use resources wisely. ____ 78. What is the best example of government interference in markets? a.establishing product safety featuresb.establishing the minimum wagec.easing immigration lawsd.the federal drug policy ____ 79. In order to have an effect, a price floor must be set a.early.b.above the equilibrium price.c.late.d.below the equilibrium price. ____ 80. All of the following can cause disequilibrium in the market EXCEPT a.government intervention.b.supply equals demand.c.new products are introduced.d.demand or supply changes. ____ 81. If a price floor is set above the equilibrium price, a.there is no effect on quantity supplied.b.a permanent shortage results.c.a permanent surplus results.d.the market forces of supply and demand determine prices. ____ 82. A surplus causes a.new workers to be hired.b.producers to increase their price to the equilibrium price.c.consumers to pay more for goods.d.producers to lower their price to the equilibrium price. ____ 83. Market structures describe all of the following EXCEPT a.the number of buyers and sellers.b.how a market is constructed.c.the ease of entry into the market.d.the products uniformity across sellers. ____ 84. An example of a commodity would be a.a one-of-a-kind brand.b.a book that has a copyright.c.a bushel of wheat.d.an automobile. ____ 85. The ability of a firm to raise its price without losing sales to competitors is called a.market power.b.inflation.c.profit.d.equilibrium. ____ 86. Which statement is the most valid concerning monopolies? a.All monopolies have high profit margins.b.Monopolies can lose money.c.Monopolies are legal.d.The automobile industry is a monopoly. ____ 87. Farmers operate in a perfectly competitive market. Why? a.They are hard working.b.They can sell their produce directly to consumers.c.The amount one farmer sells has no effect on the market price.d.The amount one farmer sells does have an effect on the market price another farmer can charge. ____ 88. Firms in monopolistic competition are said to operate a.with efficiency.b.with balanced capacity.c.free of government interference.d.with excess capacity. ____ 89. All of the following are true about cartels EXCEPT a.colluding firms usually produce less.b.cartels are illegal in the United States.c.they earn more profits.d.cartels are usually owned by a single family. ____ 90. An oligopoly is comprised of how many firms? a.a fewb.manyc.oned.most ____ 91. What act of Congress outlawed the creation of trusts, restraint of trade, and monopolization? a.Smith Antitrust Act of 1896b.Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890c.McCain-Feingold Antitrust Act of 1994d.Sherman-McCain Antitrust Act of 1988 ____ 92. A joining of Ford, Daimler-Chrysler, and General Motors would be an example of a.a vertical merger.b.a traditional merger.c.a horizontal merger.d.a conglomerate merger. ____ 93. Natural monopolies such as electric transmission firms or gas delivery systems are regulated by government to protect a.special interests.b.entrepreneurial interests.c.public interests.d.government interests. ____ 94. What large American corporation was recently found to be a monopoly? a.General Motorsb.Fordc.IBMd.Microsoft ____ 95. What large industry was deregulated by the federal government in 1978? a.the airline industryb.the auto industryc.the railroad industryd.the computer industry ____ 96. An example of a commodity that could be sold by an undifferentiated oligopoly would be a.computer printers.b.a barrel of oil.c.a gallon of lard.d.a bar of soap. ____ 97. An example of a commodity that could be sold by a differentiated oligopoly would be a.a Ford truck.b.an ingot of steel.c.gold bullion.d.diamonds. ____ 98. Entrepreneurs are a.lucky.b.risk-takers.c.wealthy.d.college-educated. ____ 99. Of the 25 million businesses in the United States, most a.employ more than 25 people.b.consist of one self-employed person.c.will become corporations.d.will grow into larger businesses. ____ 100. In order to start or expand a business, the most important thing for an entrepreneur to secure is a.a good location.b.a good workforce.c.financial capital.d.good management. ____ 101. An inventor who works for a corporation is sometimes referred to as a(n) a.entrepreneur.b.intrapreneur.c.venture capitalist.d.stockholder. ____ 102. Which two are correctly paired? a.business manager, entrepreneurb.business owner, entrepreneurc.stockholders, entrepreneurd.employees, entrepreneur ____ 103. All of the following are advantages of sole proprietorships EXCEPT a.pay lower taxes.b.limited life.c.few government regulations.d.easy to start. ____ 104. Imagine that you and your friends have formed a partnership where you run the business and bear unlimited liability. Your friends, on the other hand, provide capital with little liability. This arrangement is known as a.contractual partnership.b.general partnership.c.negative liability partnership.d.limited partnership. ____ 105. A CEO a.is a stock option proposal.b.is the person responsible for the management of the business.c.is a partnership agreement.d.is the financial officer. ____ 106. A corporation a.cannot be found guilty of a crime.b.can be sued.c.is usually owned by one person.d.always makes money. ____ 107. A charter is a.a written application seeking permission from the state to form a corporation.b.a bus contract.c.a written statement of the purposes of the corporation.d.the legal authorization to organize a business as a corporation. ____ 108. All of the following are true about corporations EXCEPT a.corporations have limited liability.b.the stock of a corporation must be resold after the death of its major shareholder.c.they have unlimited life.d.they can raise revenue rather efficiently. ____ 109. The Red Cross, National Education Association, and National Mental Health Association are all examples of a.S corporations.b.consumer cooperatives.c.not-for-profit organizations.d.producer cooperatives. ____ 110. The derived demand for a resource is based on a.the cost of raw materials.b.the number of workers in the labor market.c.the demand for the final product that is produced.d.the interest rates charged for business loans. ____ 111. The equilibrium wage is determined by a.the supply and demand of labor.b.the productivity of labor.c.the willingness of employers to hire labor.d.prices in the product market. ____ 112. What is the best illustration of the idea of resource complements? a.lumber/plasticsb.teachers/parentsc.cab drivers/cabsd.truck drivers/railroads ____ 113. Which of the following would not shift a labor supply curve? a.trend among teens away from working in mall storesb.increased demand for a productc.a new law prohibiting any business from operating after 9 p.m.d.a drastic change in the stock market ____ 114. Workers who have more education and experience earn more because a.they are older.b.they are supervisors.c.they are more productive.d.they are risk-takers. ____ 115. Which statement is most valid according to recent statistics? a.Women earn what men earn.b.Risky jobs pay less.c.Women earn less than men.d.Foreign labor is paid at a higher rate. ____ 116. According to the text, the minimum wage a.was raised to $6.15 per hour in 2003.b.was $5.15 per hour in 2003.c.assures all workers a base yearly income.d.is particularly helpful to teenagers who are looking for work. ____ 117. The initial process of negotiating wages, benefits, and working conditions between employer and employee is known as a.mediation.b.arbitration.c.featherbedding.d.collective bargaining. ____ 118. The purpose of a strike is to a.inconvenience people.b.stop production.c.unify consumers.d.hire more workers. ____ 119. Studies have shown that union wages are what percent higher than non-union workers? a.10 percentb.15 percentc.20 percentd.25 percent ____ 120. All are reasons for the decline in union membership EXCEPT a.strikes are fewer and less effective.b.competition from non-union firms.c.business owners pay the best wages and offer the best working conditions on their own.d.changes in the economy. ____ 121. An example of a nonwage determinant of labor demand would be a.the cost of other resources.b.the equilibrium wage rate.c.the minimum wage rate.d.alternative uses of resources. ____ 122. Featherbedding results in a.improved working conditions.b.more profit for the business.c.more workers hired than needed.d.fewer union workers being hired. ____ 123. In which of the following employment arenas do unions have the least impact on wages? a.governmentb.constructionc.service industriesd.transportation industry ____ 124. People tend to borrow more money a.during inflationary times.b.when interest is low.c.when interest is high.d.when the government remains neutral. ____ 125. Loans are made possible by a.workers.b.bankers.c.the government.d.savings. ____ 126. Interest is a.a curiosity.b.usually high.c.a reward for not consuming now.d.in equilibrium. ____ 127. What would be the effect on the demand for loans curve if the interest rate for borrowing money from a bank decreased? a.shift to the leftb.shift to the rightc.no effectd.movement along the curve ____ 128. Banks reduce risks to savers by a.building strong vaults.b.diversification.c.charging high interest rates.d.charging low interest rates. ____ 129. Because of periods of low sales, businesses need to have access to available cash from a bank. In order to do this, they establish a a.credit protocol.b.line of credit.c.open credit arrangement.d.borrowing schedule. ____ 130. Which factor would account for credit card interest being so high? a.large balance on the accountb.the abundance of credit cardsc.lack of collateral on the debtd.lower administration costs ____ 131. Which statement concerning loans is most valid? a.Administrative costs are 24% of the loan.b.All interest derived from loans is taxed.c.Interest rates on a five-year loan normally are higher than on a one-year loan.d.All loans are charged the prime rate. ____ 132. There is a difference between owning a share of stock and owning a bond. Which of the following statements is most valid? a.Stocks are less risky than bonds.b.Stocks have a maturity date.c.Bonds are less risky than stocks.d.Bonds have outperformed stocks over the decades. ____ 133. The federal body that regulates the stock and bond markets is the a.New York Stock Exchange.b.Securities and Exchange Commission.c.NASDAQ.d.Institutional Investors Forum. ____ 134. The largest mergers in history occurred during the a.1930s.b.1950s.c.1970s.d.1990s. ____ 135. A combination of firms in different industries is known as a a.vertical merger.b.trust.c.conglomerate merger.d.corporation. ____ 136. For a fee, the franchiser will supply the franchisee with all of the following EXCEPT a.the workers.b.a brand name.c.production experience.d.marketing experience. ____ 137. In 1776 Adam Smith wrote a.Money and Its Power.b.Profit and Loss.c.Wealth of Nations.d.A Lesson in Wealth. ____ 138. One of the important lessons to be learned by the Great Depression was that a.investing in stock is not a risk.b.corporations were depression-proof.c.a positive outlook toward the economy was essential.d.the government should monitor the national economy more closely. ____ 139. Which statement is the LEAST valid about the GDP? a.It measures production during the year by businesses and individuals.b.It can be used to compare economies of various countries.c.It includes production in the United States by foreign firms.d.It includes production of U.S. firms in foreign countries. ____ 140. Investment includes all of the following EXCEPT a.the selling of stock.b.the purchase of new factories.c.net additions to inventories.d.addition of new buildings. ____ 141. In economic terms the word aggregate is the same as a.mixture.b.result.c.total.d.income. ____ 142. In calculating GDP, which of the following changes most from year to year? a.government spendingb.consumer purchasesc.net exportsd.investment ____ 143. The best example of depreciation would be a.a business failing to recognize its employees.b.a car worth $22,000 new that sells for $18,000 two years later.c.the government loaning money to another country.d.adding additional value. ____ 144. The consumer price index a.lists all consumers of a particular good.b.contains a list of current prices.c.measures changes in the cost of buying a market basket of goods.d.indicates buying habits of the American people. ____ 145. In the business cycle periods of expansion are often followed by periods of a.concession.b.recession.c.prosperity.d.growth. ____ 146. Business cycles reflect movements of economic activity around a trend line that shows a.increasing GDP.b.short-term growth.c.long-term growth.d.economic fluctuations. ____ 147. Which shows the relationship between the price level in the economy and real GDP? a.aggregate output curveb.price levelc.aggregate demand curved.aggregate supply curve ____ 148. The value added by each firm equals a.that firms selling price minus the amount paid for inputs purchased from other firms.b.the amount paid for intermediate goods minus the firms selling price.c.the market value of the final good.d.the GDP based on the income approach. ____ 149. If more capital is produced in a given year, what can be expected to happen? a.Demands for labor will increase.b.The economy should grow the next year.c.The amount of debt will increase.d.Tax rates will increase. ____ 150. Improvements in the rules of the game in an economic sense can a.improve the incentives that reward innovation.b.disrupt the government.c.provide for periodic review of property rights.d.provide for legitimate civil unrest. ____ 151. What was the poverty threshold for a family of four living in the United States in 2003? a.$12,500b.$15,800c.$18,400d.$22,600 ____ 152. A major difference between industrial economies and developing economies is a.a large labor supply.b.the literacy rate of the population.c.industrial economies must import their food supply.d.traditional ways of doing business. ____ 153. G-7 refers to a(n) a.economic theory applied to labor productivity.b.7 percent increase in the prime rate.c.group of 7 nations with the largest market economies.d.7 percent decrease in the prime rate. ____ 154. Which of the following stimulated the economic rebound from the Great Depression during the 1940s? a.the invention of airplanesb.increased world tradec.World War IId.the invention of advertising ____ 155. Output per capita refers to the a.productivity of workers.b.production of factories.c.average production of all people in the country.d.the average production of factories. ____ 156. In a typical year a.the U.S. economy loses more jobs than it creates.b.there is a balance between jobs lost and jobs gained.c.the U.S. economy creates more jobs than it loses.d.advanced technology creates permanent job loss. ____ 157. The U.S. government nurtures particular industries in all ways EXCEPT a.changes in regulations.b.subsidies.c.setting wage rates in those industries.d.taxes. ____ 158. Which country has the most aggressive policy for regulating and supporting industries? a.the United Kingdomb.the United Statesc.Chinad.Japan ____ 159. Firms in some industries gain a performance advantage by locating themselves in a region with similar industries. This is called a.competition.b.technology sharing.c.cluster.d.productivity. ____ 160. Economists now worry less about short-term fluctuations in output related to the business cycle and more about long-term growth because a.inflation distorts short-term economic information.b.of the cumulative power of productivity growth.c.a trough in the business cycle distorts long-term growth figures.d.of new environmental laws passed to protect the environment and the workplace. ____ 161. A new industry moves into a town, but the unemployment rate remains high because local residents lack skills needed to qualify for the jobs it offers. This condition is known as a.seasonal unemployment.b.cyclical unemployment.c.frictional unemployment.d.structural unemployment. ____ 162. Underemployment is a term which means a.an additional person needs to be hired for the job.b.too many jobs, not enough workers.c.a worker is overqualified for a particular job.d.a worker is not qualified for the job he is performing. ____ 163. Why are unemployment rates higher for teenagers? a.Teenagers are irresponsible.b.Teenagers move in and out of the job market because of school demands.c.The number of teenagers is low to begin with.d.Teenagers want high-paying jobs. ____ 164. What is the most valid statement about unemployment benefits? a.People never search for a job while receiving benefits.b.The average time a person receives benefits is short.c.Unemployment benefits allow for a more careful search.d.Unemployment benefits increase the opportunity cost of remaining unemployed. ____ 165. A decrease in the general price level of goods is called a.disinflation.b.hyperinflation.c.demand-pull inflation.d.deflation. ____ 166. Inflation a.can have a positive effect on the economy.b.reduces the value of the dollar.c.increases the value of the dollar.d.decreases the consumer price index. ____ 167. Which of the following conditions has not been sited as a possible cause of the Great Depression? a.drop in consumer spendingb.widespread bank failuresc.restrictions on world traded.sharp increase in the nations money supply ____ 168. The doctrine that said government should not interfere in a market economy beyond the minimum required to maintain peace and protect property rights is a.public domain.b.habeas corpus.c.laissez-faire.d.no lo contendre. ____ 169. Which era in American history showed high unemployment combined with high inflation? a.17761930b.19311970c.19711981d.1981present ____ 170. According to John Maynard Keynes, the government could help the economy during the Great Depression by a.increasing taxes.b.decreasing spending.c.increasing spending.d.remaining neutral. ____ 171. In which decade did stagflation occur? a.1970sb.1960sc.1950sd.1940s ____ 172. A key idea of supply-side economics is that government can stimulate the economy by a.increasing spending.b.increasing foreign aid.c.decreasing taxes.d.remaining neutral. ____ 173. Under the benefits-received tax principle, which statement is most valid? a.There are no free riders.b.Government is not involved.c.If a person received medical care provided by the government, they should only receive the care they can pay for.d.Wealthy people dont pay their fair share. ____ 174. Which tax is not normally an example of the ability-to-pay tax principle? a.sales taxb.income taxc.property taxd.luxury tax ____ 175. An example of a progressive tax would be a a.flat tax.b.Social Security tax (FICA).c.federal and state income tax.d.sales tax. ____ 176. A marginal rate that is high would a.raise the after-tax income.b.encourage people to work longer hours.c.stimulate the stock market.d.reduce peoples incentive to work. ____ 177. Since 1960, redistribution has increased as a share of the federal budget, and defense spending has a.stayed the same.b.increased.c.declined.d.been eliminated altogether. ____ 178. An excise tax is levied on things like a.hamburger.b.a new sweater.c.cigarettes.d.a house. ____ 179. The largest spending by local governments is the category of a.education.b.police.c.highways.d.welfare. ____ 180. The largest source of revenue for local governments is from a.property tax.b.sales tax.c.state and federal aid.d.income tax. ____ 181. Our government is a.a pure democracy.b.a representative democracy.c.a direct democracy.d.capitalistic. ____ 182. In an effort to maximize their political support, politicians establish relationships with special interest groups. What expression explains this relationship? a.A stitch in time saves nine.b.A penny saved is a penny earned.c.The squeaky wheel gets the grease.d.A rolling stone gathers no moss. ____ 183. Voters adopt a stance of rational ignorance when a.they vote strictly along party lines.b.they do not educate themselves on public matters.c.they vote the wrong way on an issue.d.they exercise poor judgment. ____ 184. According to the text, taxpayers are coerced in that they a.exercise choice when funding programs.b.are forced to pay for programs they do not support.c.are forced to obey laws they do not support.d.cannot change things by voting. ____ 185. The government finances certain goods (e.g., roads, etc.) and services (e.g., care of the elderly). Which statement is the most valid in this regard? a.The government produces the services but not the goods.b.The government hires private firms to produce some goods and services.c.Government workers perform all the needed tasks.d.Private firms charge more than the government for the same good or service. ____ 186. An economys maximum sustained output in the long run is known as its a.maximum output.b.resource quotient.c.potential output.d.fiscal policy. ____ 187. The amount by which actual output in the short run exceeds the economys potential is called a.a contractionary gap.b.potential output.c.an expansionary gap.d.aggregate supply. ____ 188. Original Keynesian theory and policy were developed to address a.the currency problem.b.the multiplier effect.c.unemployment during the Great Depression.d.the structure of a balanced budget. ____ 189. Disposable income is a.extra income.b.income after taxes.c.income before taxes.d.inflated income. ____ 190. An example of an automatic stabilizer in the economy would be a.interest on a savings account.b.buying and selling stocks.c.investing in foreign currency.d.unemployment insurance. ____ 191. A combination of high inflation and high unemployment is known as a.superflation.b.stagflation.c.natural rate of unemployment.d.demand-management policies. ____ 192. A deficit results when you a.save more than you spend.b.spend more than you save.c.spend more than you earn.d.earn more than you spend. ____ 193. Reduced borrowing by individuals that results from higher interest rates caused by additional government borrowing is called a.a contractionary gap.b.an expansionary gap.c.crowding in.d.crowding out. ____ 194. Despite recent hikes, the debt held by the public relative to GDP has a.risen steadily over the years.b.dropped nearly two-thirds between 1946 and 2000.c.risen nearly two-thirds over the last 60 years.d.remained constant. ____ 195. A deficit a.is necessary for government to run effectively.b.is a way of billing future taxpayers for todays spending.c.indicates the government is owed money.d.is always followed by a balanced budget. ____ 196. President Bushs tax cuts had what impact on the current deficit? a.made it largerb.made it smallerc.created a balanced budgetd.had no effect ____ 197. What economic thinker developed the idea that it is the responsibility of the government to get the economy moving again after an economic downturn by adjusting spending and taxes? a.Adam Smithb.Alexander Hamiltonc.Franklin D. Rooseveltd.John Maynard Keynes ____ 198. One of the ways the government finances its debt is with the sale of a.stocks.b.real estate.c.stamps.d.bonds. ____ 199. Which of the following statements is not true about money? a.It is a medium of exchange.b.There always has been money of one type or another.c.It is a store of value.d.It is a unit of account. ____ 200. Ideally money should a.be non-divisible.b.fluctuate in value.c.be plentiful.d.be durable. ____ 201. The earliest known coins appeared in the seventh century B.C. in a.Asia Minor.b.Europe.c.Africa.d.China. ____ 202. Token money a.represents real money.b.has value that is higher than its cost to produce.c.is a stock certificate.d.is only coins. ____ 203. Money loaned by banks primarily comes from a.savings deposits.b.the mint.c.interest.d.the government. ____ 204. Bank notes that could be redeemed for gold were called a.fiat money.b.coinage.c.representative money.d.checks. ____ 205. United States currency is a.representative money.b.commodity money.c.full-bodied money.d.fiat money. ____ 206. A credit union is a form of a bank known as a a.commercial bank.b.thrift institution.c.charter bank.d.state bank. ____ 207. The central monetary authority in the United States is a.the mint.b.Chase Manhattan Bank.c.the Federal Reserve System.d.the Treasury Department. ____ 208. Currency makes up about a.half of M1.b.3/4 of M1.c.1/4 of M1.d.zero percent of M1. ____ 209. Approximately what percentage of U.S. dollars in circulation is held overseas? a.less than 10%b.less than 25%c.more than 50%d.more than 75% ____ 210. The newest form of money is a.electronic.b.checks.c.currency.d.coins. ____ 211. A debit card a.works like a credit card.b.is based on the idea of borrowing.c.takes money directly out of a checking or savings account.d.charges high interest rates. ____ 212. An amount owed is considered a(n) a.asset.b.investment.c.liability.d.equity. ____ 213. On a balance sheet, assets equal a.liabilities plus net worth.b.net worth minus liabilities.c.liabilities minus net worth.d.liabilities. ____ 214. In an open-market operation, the Fed purchases bonds from a bank in an effort to increase the money supply. The funds used by the Fed a.came from savings accounts.b.came out of air, so to speak.c.came from tax revenues.d.came from import duties. ____ 215. One of the ways the Fed can lower the money supply is by a.selling bonds.b.buying bonds.c.selling stock.d.buying stock. ____ 216. The demand for money graph is a downward sloping line, with interest rate figures along the vertical axis and quantity of money along the horizontal axis. The demand for money graph shows that a.as interest rates fall, the demand for money declines.b.as interest rates fall, the demand for money remains unchanged.c.as interest rates grow, the quantity of money demanded increases.d.as interest rates grow, the quantity of money demanded declines. ____ 217. As interest rates decline, the opportunity cost of holding money a.declines.b.grows.c.remains unchanged.d.becomes zero. ____ 218. The Fed can expand the money supply in all of the following ways EXCEPT a.collecting higher taxes.b.purchasing U.S. securities.c.reducing the discount rate.d.lowering the required reserve ratio. ____ 219. In the short run, changes in the money supply a.cause inflation.b.mean a lower interest rate.c.cause changes in the economy through changes in interest rates.d.cause deflation. ____ 220. Banks lend excess funds to other banks in the a.Federal Funds Market.b.Federal Savings Market.c.Federal Savings and Loan Market.d.Federal Open Market. ____ 221. Assume that the Fed has increased the money supply and people begin to spend more. What might be a consequence? a.unemployment increaseb.prices risec.the prime rate increasesd.banks keep more excess reserves ____ 222. An increase in the money supply will a.increase potential output.b.not change potential output.c.decrease potential output.d.cause potential output to decline in the long run. ____ 223. The Feds primary assets are a.Federal Reserve notes.b.its buildings and equipment.c.U.S. government securities.d.stocks and bonds. ____ 224. To take advantage of a lower opportunity cost to produce certain goods, countries a.import most goods.b.specialize.c.have higher labor costs.d.must have fertile soil. ____ 225. In order to establish a comparative advantage, a country must have all of the following resources EXCEPT a.labor.b.capital.c.mineral deposits.d.small population. ____ 226. Why has the dollar been used for many years as an international medium of exchange? a.There is an unlimited supply of dollars in the world.b.It has held a relatively steady value over many years.c.It cannot be counterfeited.d.It can be traded for gold at the U.S. Treasury.  ____ 227. Trade restrictions usually a.lower tariffs.b.benefit domestic producers.c.lower the prime rate.d.benefit domestic consumers. ____ 228. A quota tends to a.raise the U.S. price above the world price.b.benefit consumers.c.lower the U.S. price below the world price.d.keep the quality of imports high. ____ 229. Which U.S. agency is responsible for enforcing tariffs, U.S. quotas, or other restrictions imposed on goods arriving to this country? a.Federal Bureau of Investigationb.Central Intelligence Agencyc.U.S. Customs Serviced.Immigration and Naturalization Service ____ 230. GATT stands for a.General Agreement of Taxes and Trade.b.General Agreement of Tariffs and Taxes.c.General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade.d.General Agreement on Trusts and Trade. ____ 231. The WTO provides a.a market-place for world goods.b.the legal institutional foundation for world trade.c.guidelines for world tariffs.d.for a barrier-free Europe. ____ 232. Which statement best describes the U.S. trade deficit since 1960? a.The trade deficit has gotten smaller.b.A trade deficit no longer exists.c.The trade deficit has gotten steadily wider.d.The trade deficit has not changed. ____ 233. The best example of a unilateral transfer would be a.a father gives his son a new car.b.an income tax refund.c.a person sending money as a gift to a relative in Italy.d.a worker trading labor for a service. ____ 234. An exchange rate refers to a.the dollar cost of a foreign currency.b.the cost to exchange goods.c.the charges applied to a trade imbalance.d.the value of the U.S. dollar. ____ 235. Which of the following categories of U.S. exports was the largest in 2002? a.consumer goodsb.industrial supplies c.capital goodsd.food, feeds, and beverages ____ 236. Which of the following is an example of a U.S. service import? a.A Korean family vacations in at Disney World in Orlando, Florida.b.A U.S. family vacations in Rome, Italy.c.Data processing for a U.S. company is done by a company in India.d.A Japanese auto company manufactures automobiles at a plant in Kentucky. ____ 237. An example of a developing country would be a.the United States.b.France.c.China.d.Japan. ____ 238. Most developing countries have many things in common EXCEPT a.high fertility rate.b.high literacy rate.c.low GDP per capita.d.high unemployment. ____ 239. The primary or contributing factor is most deaths among young children in poor countries is a.automobile accidents.b.cancer.c.malnutrition.d.parental neglect. ____ 240. In the majority of developing countries, most workers a.have a steady job.b.receive training.c.are in unions.d.are day laborers. ____ 241. A poverty cycle is characterized by a.low income and low productivity.b.low fertility rate and high productivity.c.high productivity and low income.d.high fertility rate and high productivity. ____ 242. If a developing country wanted to improve its balance of trade quickly, what policy should it follow? a.improve its elementary schoolsb.eliminate its tariffsc.strictly enforce its environmental lawsd.support import substitution ____ 243. If the foreign aid one country gives to another is a grant, it a.must be used for a specific purpose.b.need not be repaid.c.must be repaid without interest.d.must be repaid with interest. ____ 244. Multilateral aid a.is aid from one country directly to another.b.is funds given to a country from an organization that gets money from a number of other countries.c.cannot be used for education.d.can only be in capital goods. ____ 245. Foreign aid often a.benefits government officials in recipient nations more than ordinary people.b.is given with no requirements on how it should be used.c.is allocated solely by the government of the recipient nation.d.must be repaid with high rates of interest. ____ 246. Infrastructure refers to a.the make-up of the federal budget.b.highways, water systems, etc.c.the social support network in a country.d.the specifics of a World Bank loan. ____ 247. In centrally planned economies a.consumers have great influence in what is produced.b.there are frequently shortages.c.prices are flexible.d.the economy is shaped by market forces. ____ 248. A country that is in the process of moving from a centrally planned economy to a market economy would be a.Germany.b.Mexico.c.Russia.d.the Netherlands. ____ 249. The opposite of nationalization is a.unification.b.democratization.c.socialization.d.privatization. ____ 250. Convergence has not taken hold in some poorer countries because a.of high birth rates.b.there is high human capital.c.low birth rates.d.they are often literate societies. FBLA TEST PREP FOR ECONOMICS 1 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 8 2. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 6 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 6 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 6 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 6. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 7. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 12 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 14 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 20 11. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 22 12. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 15 13. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 14 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 13 15. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 13 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 35 17. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 35 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 36 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 37 20. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 38 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 39 22. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 40 23. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 45 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 51 25. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 52 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 53 27. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 53 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 53 29. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 37 30. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 62 31. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 63 32. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 64 33. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 65 34. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 69 35. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 71 36. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 71 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 71 38. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 72 39. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 77 40. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 85 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 86 42. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 87 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 85 44. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 102 45. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 103 46. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 111 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 113 48. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 120 49. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 122 50. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 122 51. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 102 52. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 104 53. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 107 54. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 110 55. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 111 56. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 112 57. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 132 58. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 132 59. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 132 60. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 134 61. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 134 62. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 136 63. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 137 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 140 65. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 141 66. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 143 67. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 152 68. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 154 69. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 152 70. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 166 71. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 165 72. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 165 73. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 171 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 172 75. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 173 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 77. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 78. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 79. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 181 80. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 81. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 182 82. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 164 83. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 191 84. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 192 85. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 193 86. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 196 87. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 193 88. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 203 89. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 204 90. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 205 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 209 92. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 209 93. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 210 94. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 211 95. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 212 96. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 203 97. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 203 98. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 226 99. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 226 100. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 227 101. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 229 102. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 230 103. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 235 104. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 237 105. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 241 106. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 107. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 108. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 109. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 246 110. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 256 111. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 258 112. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 260 113. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 259-260 114. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 268 115. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 269 116. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 271 117. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 274 118. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 275 119. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 120. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 278 121. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 259 122. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 276 123. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 124. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 290 125. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 291 126. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 291 127. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 292 128. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 295 129. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 296 130. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 297 131. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 298 132. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 299 133. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 300 134. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 305 135. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 305 136. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 304 137. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 138. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 321 139. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 140. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 324 141. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 325 142. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 326 143. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 330 144. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 333 145. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 336 146. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 336 147. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 344 148. ANS: A PTS: 1 149. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 359 150. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 362 151. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 366 152. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 367 153. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 368 154. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 155. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 156. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 377 157. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 378 158. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 379 159. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 378 160. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 161. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 388 162. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 389 163. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 392 164. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 394 165. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 166. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 167. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 404 168. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 404 169. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 403 170. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 405 171. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 407 172. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 408 173. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 431 174. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 432 175. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 176. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 433 177. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 438 178. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 440 179. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 441 180. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 441 181. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 448 182. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 448 183. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 449 184. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 450 185. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 450 186. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 460 187. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 461 188. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 464 189. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 469 190. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 469 191. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 470 192. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 476 193. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 478 194. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 479 195. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 196. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 477 197. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 464 198. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 199. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 490 200. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 492 201. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 494 202. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 494 203. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 496 204. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 497 205. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 497 206. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 499 207. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 500 208. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 506 209. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 506 210. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 510 211. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 509 212. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 520 213. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 520 214. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 521 215. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 216. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 527 217. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 528 218. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 529 219. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 530 220. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 530 221. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 535 222. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 537 223. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 540 224. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 554 225. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 554 226. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 578 227. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 559 228. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 560 229. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 561 230. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 561 231. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 562 232. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 569 233. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 570 234. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 574 235. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 557 236. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 569 237. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 588 238. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 588 239. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 589 240. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 592 241. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 593 242. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 598 243. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 600 244. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 600 245. ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: p. 600 246. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 604 247. ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: p. 606 248. ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: p. 606 249. ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 607 250. 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