ࡱ>  ]bjbjVV <<Aw ((kkkkk4h,3)77777)))))))+-)9k)kk77O)(((k7k7)()(((7/()e)0)(A.A.(A.k(0())!)A.( 1: Chapter 18 Diet and Health Multiple Choice 01. The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as a. antigens. b. antibodies. c. synergisms. d. immunoglobulins. 02. The most important organs of the immune system include all of the following except a. spleen. b. muscle. c. lymph nodes. d. thymus gland. 03. What percentage of cells of the body are white blood cells? a. 0.01 b. 0.1 c. 1 d. 10 04. Immunoglobulins are produced primarily by a. T-cells. b. B-cells. c. antigens. d. phagocytes. 05. The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as a. bactocydosis. b. phagocytosis. c. cytotoxicosis. d. immunoglobinemia. 06. Kimmy is a curious 4-month-old baby who is just learning how to crawl. On Monday she came across some large dust particles underneath the couch, which caused her to sneeze and develop a runny nose and a cough. Two weeks later she came across more dust from the same place. Which of the following aspects of immunity allows Kimmys body to remember how to respond to this dust again? a. T cells b. B cells c. Beta cells d. Spleen cells 07. Common cell types that make up the immune system include all of the following except a. P-cells. b. B-cells. c. T-cells. d. phagocytes. 08. Functions of the T-cells include all of the following except a. recognition of antigens. b. production of antibodies. c. release of killer chemicals. d. suppression of the immune response when appropriate. 09. Presently, HIV is known to be transmitted by direct contact with contaminated body fluids from all of the following sources except a. saliva. b. blood. c. semen. d. vaginal secretions. 10. What term describes an event, such as a GI infection, that results in decreased nutrient absorption, which in turn results in inability to synthesize sufficient immune cells and immune factors, thereby leading to increased susceptibility to another GI infection? a. Synergistic b. Antagonistic c. Enteroimmune recirculation d. Reinforced negative nutrition spiral 11. Approximately how many people in the United States have HIV or AIDS? a. 100,000 b. 550,000 c. 1.1 million d. 3.3 million 12. The diseases most common today include all of the following except a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. tuberculosis. d. heart disease. 13. Of the ten leading causes of illness and death, how many are associated directly with nutrition? a. 1 b. 4 c. 7 d. 10 14. Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to diet? a. Cancer b. Heart disease c. Diabetes mellitus d. Pneumonia and influenza 15. Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet? a. Age b. Gender c. Heredity d. Low HDL level 16. Being obese is known to increase the probabilities of contracting all of the following diseases except a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. kwashiorkor. d. hypertension. 17. All of the following disorders are influenced strongly by genetics except a. diabetes. b. hypertension. c. diverticulosis. d. atherosclerosis. 18. What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls? a. Plaques b. Angina streaks c. Arterial thickening d. Pre-thromboemboli 19. By what age do most people first have well-developed arterial plaque? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 20. The most common form of cardiovascular disease is a. stroke. b. atheromatous disease. c. coronary heart disease. d. hypertensive aneurism. 21. Beverly is a 48-year-old woman with a strong family history of atherosclerosis. She eats a diet high in fat, smokes, and doesnt exercise much because she typically works 12-hour days. Beverly visits her doctor because she has recently been having chest pains. Her doctor suspects she is at risk for a heart attack. Which of the following would be the most definitive predictor of this suspicion? a. Platelet count b. C-reactive protein concentrations c. LDL cholesterol serum concentrations d. HDL cholesterol serum concentrations 22. The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed a. an anginism. b. an embolism. c. circulatory hypoxia. d. a de-plaquing event. 23. A significant reduction in blood flow to the brain is termed a. angina. b. a stroke. c. a vascular event. d. metabolic syndrome. 24. The ballooning out of an artery wall at a point where it has been weakened by deterioration is called a(an) a. aorta. b. plaque. c. aneurysm. d. diverticula. 25. A persons level of C-reactive protein appears to be a strong predictor for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. a heart attack. d. HIV progression. 26. Which of the following may be classified as a risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. BMI of 26 b. Low LDL-cholesterol levels c. High HDL-cholesterol levels d. High C-reactive protein levels 27. Tiny, disc-shaped bodies in the blood that are important in clot formation are called a. T-cells. b. C-cells. c. plaques. d. platelets. 28. What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women? a. Diabetes b. Lung cancer c. Breast cancer d. Coronary heart disease 29. Which of the following is not considered a diet-related risk factor for coronary heart disease? a. Obesity b. High sugar intake c. Glucose intolerance d. High blood cholesterol 30. Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? a. 110 over 50 b. 120 over 70 c. 130 over 80 d. 140 over 90 31. Which of the following describes a known association with coronary heart disease (CHD)? a. In men, CHD begins 10-15 years earlier than in women b. Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD c. Men with blood cholesterol levels in the borderline-high range account for up to 10% of all deaths from CHD d. Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause 32. What is prehypertension? a. A predictor of stroke risk b. Slightly high blood pressure c. A precursor for Syndrome X d. A component of the metabolic syndrome 33. What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? a. HDL b. LDL c. HDK d. VLDK 34. All of the following are features of low-density lipoproteins and coronary heart disease except a. LDL is more atherogenic than is HDL. b. excess LDL cholesterol is vulnerable to oxidation. c. LDL-lowering treatments are designed to stabilize arterial plaques. d. excess LDL cholesterol in the blood is removed by high-density lipoproteins. 35. All of the following are associations between smoking and coronary heart disease except a. smoking damages platelets. b. smoking increases blood pressure. c. smoking as a risk factor for CHD is the same for women and men. d. cessation of smoking begins to lower the risk of CHD after 18 months. 36. Anyone who is medically advised to lower blood cholesterol should a. eat fish oil capsules. b. take lecithin supplements. c. achieve desirable body weight. d. lower the intake of insoluble fiber. 37. Direct contributors to the metabolic syndrome include all of the following except a. obesity. b. hypertension. c. insulin resistance. d. high sodium intake. 38. Approximately how many people in the United States have metabolic syndrome? a. 1.5 million b. 3.5 million c. 24 million d. 47 million 39. A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be a. polydipsic. b. insulin resistant. c. hyperglucagonemic. d. pancreatic beta-cell deficient. 40. Which of the following is not one of the factors that would lead a person with high blood pressure to develop the metabolic syndrome? a. Diuretic use b. Insulin resistance c. Abdominal obesity d. High blood triglycerides 41. All of the following are characteristic of the metabolic syndrome except a. physical inactivity plays a major role in its development. b. central obesity is thought to play a greater role than other risk factors. c. at least 3 of 5 specific diet-related risk factors must be present for diagnosis. d. the risk factors act synergistically to predict the risk for coronary heart disease. 42. Why should the measurement of a persons blood cholesterol be performed at least twice with measurements taken at least one week apart? a. The person may not be fasting b. The reliability of laboratory testing instruments for cholesterol is inexact c. Blood cholesterol concentrations are known to vary significantly day to day d. The person may have an infection (e.g. cold) which affects cholesterol concentration 43. What is the appropriate method of assessing blood lipids to ensure reliable results? a. Take at least 2 measurements at least 1 week apart b. Send the patient to 2 different laboratories and average the results c. Take a fasting and a non-fasting blood sample and average the results d. Perform a fat tolerance test by having the patient drink a beverage containing 25 g of vegetable oil and obtain blood samples over the next 4 hours 44. Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? a. Begin drug treatment b. Consume a high-protein diet c. Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils d. Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight 45. Stefan was recently diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. He is very scared about this new diagnosis because no one in his family has ever had it and he hasnt ever heard of it. His primary care physician refers him to your office for some counseling on his modifiable risk factors. Which of the following topics will you most likely discuss with Stefan? a. Which medications to take b. How to improve his atherogenic diet c. How to slow down his aging process d. How to map out his family tree, identifying all relatives with heart disease 46. Risk factors for coronary heart disease that can be minimized by behavioral change include all of the following except a. stress. b. smoking. c. heredity. d. hypertension. 47. What should be the next course of action for a person who was unsuccessful in lowering LDL or blood pressure by lifestyle changes? a. Prescribe medications b. Consider coronary bypass surgery c. Obtain regular nutrition counseling d. Consider gastric surgery to reduce body weight 48. Approximately how many million people in the United States are believed to have hypertension? a. 10 b. 30 c. 65 d. 100 49. What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke? a. Blood pressure b. LDL-cholesterol c. HDL-cholesterol d. Trans-fatty acid intake 50. To lower a high blood cholesterol level, all of the following are recommended except a. consume 2 servings/week of fish. b. consume 300 mg or less of cholesterol per day. c. lower the saturated fat intake to d"7% total energy. d. decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy. 51. Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except a. age. b. race. c. salt intake. d. family background. 52. Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by the resistance of a. the ventricles in the atria. b. blood flow in the arterioles. c. the carotid arterial flow in the brain. d. blood flow in the portal venous system. 53. Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? a. Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25 b. Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive c. Three to 4 alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension d. African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than whites 54. In the measurement of blood pressure, the units are expressed as a. cm of silver. b. cm of depth. c. mm of plaque. d. mm of mercury. 55. What is the magnitude of the increase in risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure reading of 140/80 compared with the optimum blood pressure? a. 20% b. 40% c. 75% d. 100% 56. Which of the following is the most likely reason that a blood pressure reading should be repeated before confirming a diagnosis of hypertension? a. The person reacted emotionally to the procedure b. Blood pressure measuring devices often give inaccurate readings c. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too tightly on the arm d. The cuff of the blood pressure measuring device was wrapped too loosely on the arm 57. What happens to the risk for CVD for a person with a blood pressure of 120/90? a. It is halved b. It is doubled c. It is unchanged d. It is reduced by 25% 58. Among the following lifestyle changes, which has the least favorable effect on reducing blood pressure? a. Adopting the DASH eating plan b. Limiting daily alcohol intake to 1-2 drinks c. Reducing body weight to less than a BMI of 25 d. Performing physical exercise for 30 minutes per day, 5 days a week 59. Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to a. 1 drink for both women and men. b. 1 drink for women and 2 for men. c. 2 drinks for both women and men. d. 2 drinks for women and 4 for men. 60. Which of the following statements describes a risk factor for high blood pressure? a. Three alcohol drinks per day increases the risk for developing high blood pressure b. Most people are genetically sensitive to sodium and will develop high blood pressure from excess salt intake c. Ninety-five percent of people under 50 years of age with high blood pressure respond favorably to low salt intake d. Ninety-five percent of people with high blood pressure who restrict salt intake show a significant decrease in blood pressure 61. Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? a. People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive b. Weight loss is at least as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure c. People over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive d. Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups 62. How does obesity increase the risk for developing hypertension? a. The excess fat pads surrounding the kidneys impair blood flow to these organs and lead to higher output of renin b. Sodium intake in obese people significantly exceeds the recommended intake, thereby predisposing them to higher blood pressure c. Higher lipoprotein lipase activity in obese people triggers the angiotensin cascade, leading to increased peripheral resistance to blood flow d. Obesity is associated with insulin resistance, which damages blood vessels, and with altered kidney function, which promotes higher blood pressure 63. Your aunt Crystal asks you to recommend a diet that will help lower her blood pressure. She is willing to try just about anything. Which of the following choices would be most effective in lowering Crystals blood pressure? a. Eliminating the use of table salt altogether b. Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day c. Substituting all table salt use throughout the day with Mrs. Dash seasoning product d. Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day plus restricting sodium to 2 g/day 64. Which of the following is not among the recommendations by health professionals to treat hypertension? a. Increase fiber intake b. Eat foods high in potassium c. If overweight, reduce weight d. Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium 65. The DASH diet was developed to lower the risk for a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. hypertension. d. metabolic syndrome. 66. Diuretics act to lower blood pressure by a. increasing fluid loss. b. decreasing potassium loss. c. reducing arterial plaque formation. d. increasing retention of calcium and potassium. 67. People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. phosphate. 68. Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet? a. It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake b. It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis c. It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12 d. It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake 69. The DASH diet is actually the acronym for a. Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV. b. Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia. c. Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension. d. Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias. 70. A person who hasnt consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as a. normal. b. diabetic. c. prediabetic. d. impaired glucose tolerant. 71. The sixth leading cause of death in the United States is a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. hypertension. d. coronary heart disease. 72. Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except a. stroke. b. cancer. c. blindness. d. kidney failure. 73. What percentage of people with type 2 diabetes are obese? a. 10-20 b. 50 c. 75 d. 80-90 74. Insulin stimulates the actions of all the following metabolic activities except a. fat release. b. glucose uptake. c. protein synthesis. d. glycogen synthesis. 75. What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? a. Defect in insulin sensitivity b. Excessive body weight gain c. Defect of the immune system d. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates 76. Which of the following conditions is characterized by insulin resistance of fat cells? a. Hypoglycemia b. Atherosclerosis c. Type 1 diabetes mellitus d. Type 2 diabetes mellitus 77. Insulin resistance is defined as a. reduced sensitivity of cells to blood insulin. b. impaired secretion of insulin by the pancreas. c. increased destruction of insulin-producing cells. d. refusal of people with type 1 diabetes to self-inject insulin. 78. All of the following are characteristics of diabetes mellitus except a. type 1 diabetes can occur at any age. b. type 2 diabetes develops primarily when people reach adulthood. c. the two major forms are variations of the insulin-dependent type. d. the most common form is characterized by resistance to insulin by body cells. 79. In which of the following conditions would the pancreas be unable to synthesize insulin? a. Hyperglycemia b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Type 2 diabetes mellitus d. Adult-onset diabetes mellitus 80. Brooke is a 42-year-old obese person who seems to be always hungry and thirsty. She is constantly drinking sodas and likes to end her dinner every night with a piece of chocolate cake and ice cream. After going to the doctor, Brooke is diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the following types of diabetes does Brooke most likely have? a. Type 1 diabetes b. Type 2 diabetes c. Juvenile diabetes d. Polydypsia diabetes 81. Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of a. 21. b. 30. c. 40. d. 55. 82. What percentage of people with diabetes have type 1? a. 5-10 b. 10-20 c. 20-35 d. 45-55 83. Most people with type 2 diabetes have a. sarcopenia. b. osteoporosis. c. excess body fat. d. insulin dependency. 84. Which of the following is a characteristic of type 1 diabetes? a. It is an autoimmune disorder b. It occurs exclusively in people under 40 years of age c. It must be treated by daily oral intake of insulin pills d. It accounts for approximately 50% of all cases of diabetes 85. Among the following ethnic groups, which has the lowest risk for type 2 diabetes? a. American whites b. Asian Americans c. African Americans d. Native Americans 86. A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to a. sugar alcohols. b. glycated fructose. c. long-chain ketones. d. glycated corneal membranes. 87. What is the primary reason for increased urine output in uncontrolled diabetes? a. Insufficient levels of circulating insulin permit the kidneys to lose excess water b. High levels of blood glucose spill into the urine drawing water with it by osmosis c. Excess circulating insulin affects the output of antidiuretic hormone which allows greater losses of water d. Large amounts of body fat and glycogen are broken down resulting in increased release of cellular water 88. All of the following are among the symptoms of diabetes except a. polyuria. b. polydipsia. c. polyphagia. d. polysaccharidosis. 89. The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as a. polyuria. b. polyphagia. c. polyuresis. d. pseudodiuresis. 90. The excessive thirst common in diabetes is known as a. hydration. b. polyuresis. c. polydipsia. d. hyperhydration. 91. Diabetes is known to lead to all of the following except a. impaired vision. b. impaired circulation. c. increased resistance to infections. d. increased loss of water via the urine. 92. Which of the following is not among the common, long-term consequences of diabetes? a. Blindness b. Kidney failure c. Decrease in infections d. Increase in heart attacks 93. A person with diabetes is most likely to develop a. AIDS. b. cancer. c. diverticulosis. d. strokes and heart attacks. 94. Gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with a. cancer. b. diabetes. c. pancreatitis. d. HIV infection. 95. Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? a. Cancer b. Diabetes c. HIV/AIDS d. Atherosclerosis 96. It is acceptable for people with diabetes to engage in all of the following except a. alcohol in moderation. b. protein intakes representing 15-20% of total kcalories. c. sugar intake in amounts similar to the general population. d. total fat intake in amounts similar to the general population. 97. The role of diet for people with diabetes includes all of the following except a. sugar and sugar-containing foods need not be avoided. b. the glycemic effect of foods should be a primary consideration. c. diets should provide a consistent carbohydrate intake spaced throughout the day. d. the dietary amount of carbohydrate is more important than the source of carbohydrate. 98. In the otherwise stable person with type 1 diabetes, a potential problem associated with physical activity is a. hypoglycemia. b. hyperglycemia. c. nausea and vomiting. d. temporary kidney shutdown. 99. A tumor that releases cells leading to the spread of cancer to other regions of the body is said to a. promote. b. augment. c. metastasize. d. infiltrate downstream. 100. A cancer that originates from bone is a a. sarcoma. b. carcinoma. c. osteocarcinoma. d. hematopoietic neoplasm. 101. Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen? a. Cancer-initiating substance b. Cancer-inhibitory substance c. Cancer treatment substance d. Cancer antipromoter substance 102. What term describes factors that enhance the development of cancer after it has been initiated? a. Promoters b. Post-initiators c. Tumor formatives d. Tumor directives 103. Which of the following statements represents current thought regarding the development of cancer? a. Dietary fat appears to be protective against many types of cancer b. Food additives play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer c. Food contaminants play only a small role, if any, in the causation of cancer d. Dietary protein from animal sources appears to be protective of many types of cancer 104. What happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame? a. They are detoxified by the liver b. They act as initiators for breast cancer c. They act as promoters for prostate cancer d. They are subjected to enterohepatic circulation 105. Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestines, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens? a. Milk b. Fiber c. Omega-3 fats d. Refined starches 106. Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? a. Fiber b. Inositol and biotin c. Certain saturated fats d. Protein from animal sources 107. Practices that are believed to help protect against cancer include all of the following except a. decreasing salt intake. b. decreasing alcohol intake. c. avoiding charbroiled meats. d. consumption of cruciferous vegetables. 108. Which of the following is not among the recommendations issued by health professionals to reduce cancer risks? a. Limit intake of red meats b. Moderate, if any, intake of alcohol c. Increase intake of foods high in iron d. Eat at least 5 servings a day of vegetables and fruits 109. Which of the following practices is not believed to be protective for all of the following: heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, and cancer? a. consuming fiber-rich foods b. drinking alcohol only in moderation c. engaging in regular physical exercise d. consuming fat within the range of 20-35% of total energy 110. Which of the following defines the association between nutrition and chronic disease? a. Diet can influence the time of onset of some chronic diseases b. Diet is the primary factor affecting the development of chronic diseases c. Dietary influence in the development of chronic diseases is direct, straightforward, and well understood d. Dietary advice for combating heart disease and cancer prevents their development if instituted early in life 111. In a person with a BMI of 50, what minimum number of pounds must be lost to obtain a measurable improvement in glucose, blood lipids, and blood pressure? a. 10-20 b. 40-50 c. 75-100 d. more than 100 112. What treatment is effective against lead poisoning and is also considered an alternative therapy for cardiovascular disease? a. Ozone Injections b. Chelation therapy c. Biofield Therapeutics d. Hydroexpulsion Therapeutics 113. Conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called a. interactive therapy. b. yin and yang medicine. c. herbal-assisted healing. d. complementary medicine. 114. Chelation therapy is purported to work by ridding the body of a. tumor cells. b. toxic metals. c. organic toxins. d. excess fat-soluble vitamins. 115. Which of the following is currently accepted as a medical treatment in the United States? a. Radiation therapy b. Biofield therapeutics c. Orthomolecular therapy d. Microwave resonance therapy 116. What is ayurveda? a. A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis b. An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth c. A Hindu system for enhancing the bodys ability to prevent illness and to heal itself d. A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles 117. Naturally occurring salicylates in curry, paprika, and certain teas provide the same protective effects as low dose a. statins. b. aspirin. c. insulin. d. diuretics. 118. What is the name of the cancer-treatment substance first extracted from the bark of old Pacific yew trees (and now synthesized in the laboratory)? a. Ephedra b. Paclitaxal c. Kombucha d. Germanium 119. All of the following are features of herbs sold to the public except a. they are not regulated as drugs by the FDA. b. they are not evaluated for safety or effectiveness by the FDA. c. the FDA, and not the manufacturer of the herb, has the burden of proving the product is unsafe. d. they are considered appropriate for treatment of certain major health disorders such as cancer or AIDS. Matching 01. Immune cells that produce antibodies 02. Immune cells that attack antigens 03. A type of protein that can act as an antibody 04. Immune cells that practice phagocytosis 05. The primary cause of death in the United States 06. Disease characterized by the accumulation of lipids on the inner arterial walls 07. A mound of lipid material embedded in arterial walls 08. A blood clot that has broken loose and circulates in the bloodstream 09. A blood clot that is attached to arterial plaque 10. Consequence of a clot that stops blood flow to the brain 11. Small, cell-like bodies required for formation of a blood clot 12. The bulging of an artery commonly caused by elevated blood pressure 13. This type of diabetes is always controlled by insulin injections 14. This type of diabetes is usually controlled without insulin injections 15. Term that describes the death of tissue due to deficient blood supply, common in severe cases of diabetes 16. When cancers spread to other tissues of the body 17. An abnormal mass of cells 18. Substance or event that gives rise to a cancer 19. Substance that favors cancer development after cellular DNA has been altered 20. A carcinogen in fried potato products A. B-cells B. T-cells C. Stroke D. Tumor E. Plaque F. Initiator G. Platelets H. Embolus I. Promoter J. Gangrene K. Thrombus L. Aneurysm M. Metastasis N. Acrylamide O. 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