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It will prohibit any application from being approved and bank is required to file a written capital restoration plan within 45 days of date the bank receives notice or it represents an unsafe or unsound practice. For U, SU, or CU institutions under Part 325, a capital restoration plan must be submitted to RD entailing? SLOTH it’s a slow process Steps the insured depository institution will take to become adequately capitalized Levels of capital to be attained during each year the plan will be in effect Other information as required Types and levels of activities in which the institution will engage; and How the institution will comply with the restrictions in effect under prompt corrective action How are intangibles valued? Valuation of mortgage servicing assets, purchased credit card relationships and nonmortgage servicing assets will be equal to the lesser of 90% of fair value or 100% of remaining unamortized book value. These assets will be limited to 100% of Tier 1 capital. In addition purchased credit card relationships and nonmortgage servicing assets will be limited to 25% of Tier 1 capital. Deferred tax assets are limited to the lesser of the amount of deferred tax assets that are dependent upon future taxable income that is expected to be realized within one year of the calendar quarter-end date or 10% of Tier 1 capital. Deferred tax assets are treated consistently to the item to which they relate (unrealized losses, intangible assets, etc.) What is Well Capitalized? Total Risk Based Capital – 10.0% or greater Tier 1 Risk Based Capital – 6.0% or greater Leverage Ratio – 5.0% or greater Not subject to an written agreement What is Adequately Capitalized? Total Risk Based Capital – 8.0% or greater Tier 1 Risk Based Capital – 4.0% or greater Leverage Ratio – 4.0% or greater OR 3.0% or greater and 1 rated not experiencing growth What is Undercapitalized? Below Adequate What is Significantly Undercapitalized? Total Risk Based Capital – less than 6.0% Tier 1 Risk Based Capital – less than 3.0% Leverage Ratio – less than 3.0% What is Critically Undercapitalized? Tangible equity to total assets equal to or less than 2.0% What is Tangible equity capital? Tier 1 + Cumulative perpetual preferred stock (including surplus) Less all intangible assets except eligible MSR. Note: FDIC may reclassify a bank in the W, A, or U category one category lower if: Unsafe and unsound practice or condition Under Section 38 what restrictions are there on all banks? Pay a capital distributions or management fees causing it to become under capitalized. What is your hint for the 5 things U, S, C banks are subject to and what are they? Plan For Capital Growth Expired! Payment of capital distributions and management fees restricted FDIC monitoring of the condition of the bank required Capital restoration plan required to be submitted, as detailed above Growth of the bank’s assets restricted Expansion proposals Require prior approval S, C banks or banks has failed to submit /implement an acceptable capital restoration plan are also? Restriction on compensation paid to senior executive officers of the institution What 8 actions require prior written FDIC approval for C banks? Entering into any material transaction other than in the usual course of business Extending credit for any highly leveraged transaction Engaging in any covered transaction (23A) Amending the institution’s charter or bylaws Paying excessive compensation or bonuses Paying above market rates Making any material change in accounting methods Making any principal or interest payment on subordinated debt beginning 60 days after becoming C Appendix A What is the Leverage Capital ratio? Tier 1/ average assets (yr to date average) What is the hint for Tier 1 Capital? Capital No More less I3D How do you calculate Tier 1 Capital? Common stockholders’ equity (less net unrealized losses on AFS equity securities) Noncumulative perpetual preferred stock Minority interests in consolidated subsidiaries MINUS Intangible assets (except allowed amounts of mortgage servicing rights and purchased credit card relationships and certain grandfathered supervisory goodwill) Identified losses (losses other than loans and provisions to ALLL) Investments in securities subsidiaries subject to 337.4 Deferred tax assets in excess of the limit in 325.5(g) What is the hint for Tier 2 Capital? All Capital Positions Have To Use Tiers How do you calculate Tier 2 Capital? Tier 2 Capital Allowance for loan and lease losses up to 1.25% of RWA Cumulative perpetual preferred stock, long-term preferred stock (original maturity of at least 20 years) and any related surplus Perpetual preferred stock where dividend is reset periodically, even if it noncumulative Hybrid capital instruments, including mandatory convertible debt Term subordinated debt and intermediate-term preferred stock (limited to 50% of Tier 1; at least 5 year original maturity and not redeemable by holder prior to maturity) Up to 45% of pretax net unrealized holding gains on AFS equity securities (optional and may lower Tier 1 RBC ratio) Tier 2 capital cannot exceed Tier 1 capital How would perferred stock with an original maturity of 10 years fit into Tier 2 Capital? It along with all term subordinated debt would be limited to 50% of Tier 1 What if Term subordinated debt or intermediate-term preferred stock is less than 5 years? 1-2yrs 20% 2-3yrs 40% 3-4yrs 60% 4-5yrs 80% >5yrs 100% (of course) What are the categories for Risk Weights for Balance Sheet Assets? 0% ; 20%; 50%; and 100% What is in Category 1 – 0%? Cash Gold bullion in bank’s vaults or in another bank’s vaults on an allocated basis Direct claims on OECD central governments Direct claims on US Gov’t Agencies (GNMA, VA, FHA, FmHA, ExIm Bank, OPIC, CCC, SBA) Federal Reserve Bank stock What is your hint for Category 2- 20% What is in it? Hint: Coke POP Bottles are a Golden Cash Cow Cash items in process of collection, both foreign and domestic Portions of claims collateralized by securities issued by or guaranteed by OECD central governments, US Government agencies, US Government sponsored agencies Other institutions in which the US Government is a stakeholder Portions of claims collateralized by cash held in a segregated deposit account of the lending bank Bank deposits GO claims on states or other political subdivisions of US or OECD countries Claims on US Government-sponsored agencies Conditional guarantees by OECD central governments and US Government Agencies What are the 5 main US Sponsored agencies we see debt from? FHLMC, FNMA, FCS, FHLB, SLMA What is in Category 3 – 50%? Loans fully secured by first liens (and junior liens if have first lien) on a residential property made on prudent basis and not 90 days or more past due or nonaccrual Loans to builders with substantial project equity for the construction of residences that have been presold under firm contracts Loans secured by first liens on multifamily residential properties <=80% LTV 1.20 DSC Privately issued MBS that are composed of loans qualifying for inclusion in this category Revenue bonds, loans, etc. (not including IDBs) to states or political subdivisions of US or OECD countries What is in Category 4 – 100%? All other assets What are the Conversion Factors for Off Balance Sheet Items? 100% Conversion Factor Financial SBLC (irrevocable) Forward agreements 50% Conversion Factor Performance standby letters of credit Unused portions of commitments with an original maturity exceeding one year 20% Conversion Factor Commercial letters of credit 0% Conversion Factor Unused portions of commitments with an original maturity of one year or less Unused portions of retail credit card lines and related plans if unconditional option to cancel at any time Reg. O What is an Affliate? Affiliate means any company of which bank is a subsidiary or any other subsidiary of that company What three ways can a person have control? controls 25% or more of any class of voting stock, controls the election of a majority of directors, or (1&2 are same as 23A) has power to exercise controlling influence over management or policies What is presumptive control? Hint: Reg. O --- 1O% a person who is an executive officer or director and directly or indirectly controls more than 10% of voting stock or the person directly or indirectly controls more than 10% of voting stock and no other person controls a greater percentage Unimpaired capital and unimpaired surplus means? The bank’s Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital and the balance of the ALLL not included in Tier 2 capital. A Principal shareholder directly or indirectly controls? More than 10% of any class of voting stock. Includes shares held by immediate family. What is immediate family? Spouse Minor children Adult children living at home Related interest is? A company that is controlled by that person or a political or campaign committee that is controlled by that person What are the 4 General Prohibitions of Reg. O? same terms Board approval when aggregate credit exceeds the higher of $25M or 5% (up to $500M) of capital and surplus. individual lending limit (15% + 10% secured). Amount to all insiders does not exceed capital and surplus. What are the exceptions to #4 above? Banks with deposits of less than $100 million may by an annual resolution of its board increase the general limit to a level not to exceed 2 time capital and surplus.) Extensions: secured by a perfected security interest in US Government or Agency securities or otherwise guaranteed by the US Government, secured by perfected security interest in segregated deposit account in lending bank, or arising from discount of negotiable or nonnegotiable installment consumer paper that is acquired from an insider and carries a full or partial recourse endorsement by the insider Who does the Reg. O restriction on overdrafts apply to? No bank may pay an overdraft of an executive officer or director of the bank or its affiliates (does not apply to principal shareholders or any related interests) What 4 conditions have to be meet for overdrafts to be OK? inadvertent aggregate amount of $1M or less not overdrawn for more than 5 business days and charged same fee as any other customer of the bank in similar circumstances. When can a bank make a loan to Executive Officer? Bank may extend credit to an executive officer in any amount to: Children’s education or 1st lien on residence of the executive officer Secured by US obligations or segregated deposit accounts at the lending bank. Or up to 2.5% of capital and surplus with a minimum of $25M and a maximum of $100M Note: the Union outline says ”(in calculating 2.5% of capital and surplus extensions from above are included)” When I read Reg. O I don’t think so. What 4 things have to be done for a loan to an executive officer? Promptly reported to the bank’s board, Same terms and creditworthiness standards as outside borrowers, Preceded by a detailed current financial statement, and Made subject to a demand clause that can be exercised any time the officer is indebted to any other bank or banks in an aggregate amount greater than the amount allowed for the lending bank. How long does a Executive officer have to report new debt from other banks the amount is > 2.5% of TA or $100M? 10 days What does this report have to entail? Be written and state : the lender’s name, the date and amount of each extension of credit, any security for it, and the purpose of proceeds. When, upon a written request from the public, must a bank make available names of each of its executive officers and each of its principal shareholders with debt in-house? When aggregated with all other outstanding extensions of credit at such time from the bank or separately any correspondent bank, equaled the lesser of 5% of capital or $500M. What must an executive officer or principal shareholder (including their related interests) report to the Board on or before January 31? Any extension of credit from a correspondent. The report shall include: the maximum amount of indebtedness had during the calendar year, the amount of indebtedness as of ten business days before the report is filed, and a description of the terms and conditions of each extension of credit. Draw the Reg. O grid. PurposeEOBHC EODirBHC DirPSBHC PSStock loansXXXXOD X* X* X* X*Report debt to Board (10days) and with Call Report X*Public disclosure of debt to banksXXXDisclosure of debt to correspondentsXXXAnnual report to BoardXXX* Does not apply to related interest Section 23A What is the 23A definition of an affiliate? 23A deals with affiliates so it uses Reg O’s 2 and adds 3 more Any company that controls the bank Any other company that is controlled by the controlling company (1&2 in Reg O) A bank subsidiary (80% rule applies). Non-bank and foreign bank subsidiaries are excluded from definition of affiliate for 23A. Any company with common ownership or common directors A company sponsored and advised on a contractual basis by the bank, or its affiliates Note: Sole proprietorship is not a company for 23A Name the 5 organizations excluded from being an affiliate. Non-bank subsidiaries of the bank A company that only holds bank premises A Company that only does safe deposit boxes A Company that only holds obligations of the US, its agencies or securities guaranteed by them A Company acquired by debt previously contracted What is Control? Control is 25% or more of voting securities or election of a majority of the directors. What is a sister bank and what restrictions do they have? When a bank 80% controlled by a holding company, its transactions with other 80% controlled banks are largely unrestricted except the prohibition of purchasing low quality assets and that all transactions be consistent with safe and sound banking practices. What do covered transactions consist of? Hint: Last Affiliate Put In Prison He was covered by bars. Loans to an affiliate Acceptance of securities issued by an affiliated company as collateral for any loan Purchase of securities issued by an affiliate Issuance of a guarantee, acceptance, or letter of credit for an affiliate Purchase of non-exempted assets from an affiliate What are the 5 restrictions on covered transactions? transactions to a single affiliate are limited to 10% of capital and 20% of to all affiliates Prohibits a bank from purchasing any low quality asset terms and conditions that are consistent with safe and sound banking practices Collateral requirements What are low quality assets? classified other than Pass, listed for Special Mention on nonaccrual status, past due more than 30 days, or TDR What are the Collateral requirements of 23A? US/banks ->states ->biz -> people 100% - US Government and agency securities, segregated deposits, or obligations eligible for rediscount or purchase by a Fed bank 110% state or political subdivision 120% other types of debt instruments, including receivables 130% stocks, leases, or other real or personal property What are the 7 specific relationships exempt from 23A requirements? Hint: Some Pretty Retarded People Can Understand Loans Sister banks Purchase of securities covered by Bank Holding Company Act Repos that become low quality Purchase of nonrecourse loans or publicly traded securities Correspondents Uncollected items Loans to affiliates secured by US obligations or in bank deposit accounts Section 23B How is the 23B definition of affiliate different from 23A? Definition of affiliate for 23B same as 23A except banks are not affiliates for 23B What restrictions does 23B add? Requires terms of affiliate transactions be comparable to terms of similar non-affiliate transactions Restricts the extent that a bank may, as a fiduciary, purchase securities and other assets from an affiliate Restrict the purchase of securities where an affiliate is the principal underwriter Prohibits agreements and advertising providing or suggesting that a bank is responsible for the obligations of its affiliates Brokered Deposits When can banks have Brokered Deposits? Only a well-capitalized institution can accept, renew, or roll over without restriction. Adequately-capitalized institutions must obtain FDIC waiver for such activities and undercapitalized institutions are prohibited from these activities. (Part 337) Misc. What does Section 337.12 and Section 10(d) require? Annual full-scope on-site examination at least once during each 12-month period. From end of last exam. May be extended to 18 months if: Hint : 18-12 = 6 there are 6 things that need to be: Total assets $250MM or less Well capitalized per Part 325 Well managed (PX management “1” or “2”) Composite “1” or “2” at PX Not subject to formal enforcement proceeding or order by FDIC, OCC, or FRS No person acquired control during preceding 12-month period When do you have Meetings with Directors? Composite “4” or “5” rating – EIC and RD (or designee) Composite “3” – EIC Composite “1” or “2” – EIC IF: 36 months or more have elapsed since the last such meeting management component is “3” any component is “4” or “5” any two components are “3” What are each category of contingent liabilities? Hint: with is one (I) word ; without is two (II) words well sort of Category I contingent liabilities will result in a simultaneous increase in bank assets if it converts to an actual liability Category II contingent liabilities are those were a claim on assets arises without an equivilant increase in assets. What is the hint for Part 365? 6-7-8^3- 55-0-55- Right Law Could Restrict Individuals Outhouses Internal LTV limits on real estate should not exceed? 65% for raw land 75% for land development 80% for commercial, multi-family and other non-residential construction 85% for residential construction (1-4) 85% for improved property No limit for owner-occupied residential loans (PMI over 90%) Government guaranteed loans and loans to be sold in secondary market without recourse are exempted Moreover, total loans for all RE loans (except 1-4 residential properties) exceeding supervisory guidelines should not exceed 30% and be reported to the board at least quarterly. All loans including 1-4 should not be over 100% What is your hint for 323? LIFT 37 3 7 What transactions are exempt from Part 323? Lien on RE has been taken as collateral in an abundance of caution Lien on RE has been taken for purposes other than the RE’s value Lease of RE is entered into, unless economically equivalent to purchase or sale of RE Institution is acting in a fiduciary capacity FDIC determines that the services of an appraiser are not necessary in order to protect federal financial and public policy interests or to protect the safety and soundness of the institution Transaction value is $250,000 or less Transaction is not secured by RE Transaction is a business loan that: (i) has a transaction value of $1 million or less and (ii) is not dependent on the sale of, or rental income derived from, real estate as the primary source of repayment Transaction involves existing extension of credit at the institution, provided that: (i) no obvious and material change in the market conditions or physical aspects of the property that threatens the adequacy of protection after the transaction, even with the advancement of new monies, or (ii) no advancement of new monies, other than funds necessary to cover reasonable closing costs Transaction involves the purchase, sale, investment in, exchange of, or extension of credit secured by, a loan (or similar) and each loan met FDIC regulatory requirements for appraisals at origination Transactions wholly or partially insured or guaranteed by US government agency (including sponsored) Transaction qualifies for sale to a government agency or is a residential real estate transaction in which the appraisal conforms to FNMA or FHMLC standards Interagency retail credit classification policy Open-end and closed-end credit past due __ days should be classified Substandard? 90 days How past due should retail; credit be before it should be charged off? Closed-end 120 days Open-end 180days Accounts in bankruptcy should generally be charged off within how many days? 60 days of notice, anything not charged off should be classified Substandard Fraudulent loans should be charged off within ___ days of discovery. 90 When should Residential real estate loans and home equity loans be classified Substandard and Loss? Substandard when delinquent 90 days or more with LTV greater than 60 percent When residential or home equity loan is 120 days (closed end) or 180 days (open end) a current assessment of value should be made and any balance in excess of the fair value (less cost to sell) should be classified Loss How long should an account exist before allowing a re-aging, extension, renewal, referral, or rewrite and how often can it be done? For at least nine months, also no loan should be re-aged, extended, deferred, renewed, or rewritten more than once within any 12 month period and no loan should be re-aged more than two times within any 5 year period How much performance is needed before re-aging? Borrower should make ate least three minimum consecutive monthly payments or the equivalent lump sum payment. What is loan imparment and how is it handled? Loan impairment – when based on current information and events, it is likely an institution will be unable to collect all amounts due. FASBs 114 and 118. Amount of impairment should be measured based on the present value of expected future cash flows discounted at effective interest rate. If less than book value, should be a valuation allowance for difference (is included as part of general ALLL) UCC Legal requirements of secured loans are covered under Article 9 of the UCC except: Hint: Why Should These Liens Require Some Bank Judgment? Wages Security interest subject to any statute of the US such as Ship Mortgage Act Transfer of claim in insurance Landlord’s liens Real Estate Sale of accounts or chattel paper Bank account Judgements UCC-1 is good for? Hint: UCC-1 = _ _ _ _ _ = 5 5 years; continuations can be filed during the last 6 months of the 5 years What are the 3 Exceptions to the rule of priority? Dealers inventory (car) When liens perfected by doing nothing are sold to a buyer buying in good faith (TV) When a second creditor supplies replacements or additions to the collateral (Computer) The 5 investment risk are? Market Risk Credit Risk Liquidity Risk Operational or Transactional Risk Legal Risk The 4 principal market risk are? Price risk Interest rate risk Basis risk Yield Curve risk Draw the securities classification grid. General Debt Security Classification Guidelines TableSecurity TypeClassification SubstandardDoubtfulLossInvestment quality debt securities with "temporary" impairment ------------Investment quality debt securities with "other than temporary" impairment--------ImpairmentSubinvestment quality debt securities with "temporary" impairmentAmortized Cost--------Subinvestment quality debt securities with "other than temporary" impairment, including defaulted debt securities.Fair Value----ImpairmentNOTE: Impairment is the amount by which amortized cost exceeds fair value. Draw the 327 grid Well Capitalized (1) ;Adequately Capitalized (2) ;Undercapitalized (3) Supervisory Risk Factors ·A - Composite 1 or 2 ·B - Composite 3 ·C - Composite 4 or 5 PRIVATE1-234-5W4721A71428U142831 What does each cell represent? The annual BIF assessment in cents per $100 in deposits (paid semi-annually) What is the adjusted assessment as of 1997? All cells are 4 cents lower When under FASB 13 is Capitalizing leases is required? When one of the following conditions is met: Ownership of the property is transferred to the lessee at the end of the lease term The lease contains a bargain purchase option The lease term represents at least 75% of the estimated economic life of the leased property The present value of the minimum lease payments at the beginning of the lease term is 90% or more of the fair value of the leased property to the lessor at the inception date, less any related investment tax credit retained by or expected to be realized by the lessor What would be the amount capitalized? Amount capitalized would be the present value of the minimum required payments over the noncancellable term as defined by the lease plus the present value of the payment required under the bargain purchase option, if any, less any portion of the payments representing administrative expenses such as insurance maintenance and taxes to be paid by the lessor. Management/Administration What does Section 19 enact? Section 19 prohibits, without prior written consent of the FDIC, a person convicted or who has entered into a pretrial diversion or similar program of any criminal offenses involving: dishonesty or breach of trust or money laundering, from becoming or continuing as an institution-affiliated party. Under Section 19, an application to continue to serve is not required, as long as: All of these are meet: There is only one conviction for a covered offense The offense did not involve a bank The offense was punishable by a prison term of less than one year and/or a fine of less than $1,000, and the individual did not serve any jail time The conviction was entered at least 5 years prior to the date that an application would have been required Related Organizations What is the Bank Holding Company Act definition of Bank Holding Companies? Business organization (or long-term trust, i.e., >25yrs. or 21yrs and 10mo. after death) which controls any bank or bank holding company Conclusive presumption of control exists if ? Hint B H C = 3 there are 3 options for both presumption and rebuttable presumption of control the company directly or indirectly controls 25% or more of the voting shares or if it controls in any manner the election of a majority of the directors Whenever the transferability of 25% of voting securities of a company is conditioned on the transfer of 25% of another company. Rebuttable presumption of control exists if: Company controls more than 5% of voting stock if one or more directors or officers serves in any capacity with the bank or holding company and no other person controls as much as 5% of the company Company that controls more than 5% if additional voting securities are controlled by individuals or members of their immediate families who are directors or officers of the company and such holdings aggregate 25% or more of voting securities. Company that enters into an agreement with a bank under which the company exercises significant influence in the general management or operations of the bank Note: Company that enters into an agreement in which a holders rights in voting securities is restricted presumably controls those shares unless it is a mutual agreement among shareholders granting first refusal or incident to a loan transaction or relates to restrictions on transferability and continues only as may reasonably be necessary to obtain approval for acquisition and a company that directly or indirectly owns securities that are convertible immediately at option of holder into voting securities presumably owns voting securities A company is not a holding company if: You ain’t a holder if U down with OPP ownership involved in underwriting security issue ownership in a fiduciary capacity without discretionary voting power shares acquired through debt previously contracted (if disposed in <2yrs), shares controlled through proxy solicitation, All bank holding companies must register with the Board of Governors of the Fed and Fed’s prior approval must be obtained prior to formation of any new bank holding company. BHC must get Fed prior approval for acquisition of ownership or control of more than 5% of voting shares in any bank or acquisition of substantially all bank assets or for merger or consolidation with another BHC. Except for? A BHC that already has control gets more shares BHC Act prohibits a BHC from? Owning shares of any company that is not a bank, engaging in any activities other than banking or managing and controlling banks, or furnishing services to or performing services for their subsidiaries except as specifically authorized by the Act or Fed. What are permissible activities under the BHC Act? 4 services and 5 investments furnishing or performing services to or for holding company and subsidiaries, or conducting a safe deposit business, Subsidiary bank may hold or acquire shares in a fiduciary capacity Ownership of a company holding or operating properties used wholly or substantially by any subsidiary, liquidating assets acquired from any source prior to the date on which company became a BHC Indirectly own shares of any company if shares were acquired by a bank in satisfaction of a debt previously contracted or directly hold shares of a company if the shares were acquired by holding company because on e of subsidiaries was ordered to divest (in both cases shares must be sold within two years) May hold shares of the kind and amount expressly eligible for investment by national banks May hold shares of any company provided the shares do not exceed 5% of the outstanding voting share of that company May hold shares of any investment company provided the investment company is not a BHC and is not engaged in any business other than investing in securities, none of which exceed 5% of the outstanding shares of any company Nonbank banks were grandfathered in 1987, but cannot? expand into businesses it was not lawfully engaged in 1987 and may not cross-market with affiliates unless such activity was conducted in 1987 and may not permit an overdraft by an affiliate on its books or overdraft its account at a Fed bank on behalf of an affiliate and may not increase its assets at an annual rate of more than 7% during any 12 month period. BHC Act prohibits tying arrangements, but for banks what 4 services are excepted from the prohibition? loans, discounts, deposits, and trust services Chain Banking Groups Why is off-site monitoring of chain banking organizations more difficult? Unlike multibank BHC, Chain Banking Groups don’t have to report FS on a consolidated basis. Affiliates Banking Act of 1933 defines affiliates as? Any organizations which comes within one or more following categories: Subsidiary – an organization in which the bank directly or indirectly controls a majority of voting shares, controls more than 50% of number of shares voted for election of directors at the last election, or controls in any manner the election of a majority of organization’s directors Common Shareholder – an organization which is controlled through stock ownership or in any manner by the majority shareholders of a bank, by shareholders of a bank who own or control more than 50% of shares voted for bank’s directors at last election, or by trustees for benefit of bank’s shareholders Common Directors – an organization if a majority of its directors are directors of a bank Holding or Controlling – an organization that control a majority of share of a bank, control more than 50% of shares voted for bank’s directors at last election, or control in any manner the election of a majority of bank’s directors Criminal Referrals Suspicious Activity Reports shall be filed if: An employee, officer, director, agent or other institution-affiliated party is suspected of committing or aiding in the commission of a crime involving the institution A known or suspected crime is committed against the institution, there is actual or potential loss to the institution of $5M or more, and possible suspect(s) (not an employee, officer, director, agent, or IAP) can be identified A known or suspected crime is committed against the institution, there is actual or potential loss to the institution of $25M or more, and a potential suspect cannot be identified A financial transaction of $5M or more was conducted or attempted using the institution as a conduit for criminal activity. More specifically, the funds involved in the transaction were derived from illicit activity, the purpose of the transaction was to hide or disguise funds from illicit activities, or the purpose of the transaction was evade the BSA requirements. Financial institutions are required to file the SAR within ____ days of detecting the criminal activity. 30 days; however, if management is unable to identify a suspect within 30 days, reporting may be delayed until the earlier of an additional 30 days or until a suspect is identified What are the minimum NDIP disclosures? Not FDIC Insured Not bank guaranteed Subject to investment risk, including potential principal loss List the parts of Section 8. Section 8(a) – Termination of Insured Status Section 8(b) – Cease and Desist Order Section 8(c) – Temporary Cease and Desist Order Section 8(d) – Injunction for FDIC to enforce 8(c) Section 8(e) – Removal of an Officer or Other IAP Section 8(f) – Stay of Suspension Section 8(g) – Suspension of an IAP Section 8(I) – CMP Accounting for Troubled Debt Restructuring: SFAS 15 Assets transferred to creditor by debtor in full satisfaction of BV of loan, must be recorded at ? Fair value. Excess of loan over fair value of assets received is a loss-charged to ALLL. Excess of investment in securities over fair value should be classified as securities loss. How is a modified loan accounted for as opposed to transfer of assets? Modified = N/A Transfer and re book = NPV If total future value is less than outstanding principal balance plus accrued & unpaid interest, difference is immediate loss. Book at total of future payments; no interest income recognized over life of restructured asset; all payments applied to balance as received. Accounting for OREO: FASB 15, 66, 114, and 121 OTHER REAL ESTATE How is OREO booked? Should be booked at time of foreclosure at fair value of property less cost to sell the property. Any loss should be charged to allowance for loan and lease losses. Excess should be reported as a recovery of prior charge-off or current earnings, as appropriate. If partial satisfaction of loan, loan should be reduced by fair value of property. Legal and other direct expenses incurred by the bank in foreclosure should be included in expenses when they are incurred. Financed Sales of Other Real Estate (66) List and explaine the 5 methiods of accounting for the disposition of OREO. Hint: FDIC-Rules Full Accrual Method – disposition is recorded as a sale, profit recognized immediately but 4 things have to be meet: Sale consummated Receivable is not subject to future subordination Usual risks and rewards of ownership have been transferred Buyer’s initial investment and continuing investment are adequate to demonstrate a commitment to pay for the property Instalment Method – recognizes a sale and corresponding loan, profits are recorded as the bank receives payments, interest income is recognized on an accrual basis Used when down payment is not adequate for full accrual method, but recovery of cost of property is reasonably assured Cost Recovery Method – recognizes a sale and corresponding loan and may apply when dispositions do not qualify under full accrual or instalment methods. The loan is maintained on nonaccrual status while this method is used. Reduced-Profit Method – Method is appropriate in those situations where the bank receives an adequate down payment, but the loan amortization schedule does not meet the requirements of the full accrual method. Profits recognized as payments are received; however, profit recognition is based on the present value of the lowest level of periodic payments required under the loan agreement. Deposit Method – Used in situations where a sale of real estate has not been consummated. Continues to be reported as other real estate. Payments received from the borrower are reported as a liability until sufficient payments or other events have occurred which allow the use of one of the other methods. Where are Other Real Estate reserves included in capital? Not included in either Tier 1 or Tier 2 Capital Valuation allowances must be made on an asset-by-asset basis and are netted from the asset’s cost to determine the gross amount for classification. General reserves should be viewed as a contra-asset to other real estate and netted for the statement of condition. To the degree general reserves adequately cover the risks inherent in the other real estate portfolio as a whole, the amount of other real estate assets classified Loss will not need to be deducted from Tier 1 capital. PART 326 The security program shall establish procedures? opening and closing for business procedures that for the safekeeping of all currency, negotiable securities, and similar valuables at all times procedures that will assist in identifying persons committing crimes against the bank procedures that and that will preserve evidence that may aid in their identification and prosecution procedures for retaining a record of any robbery, burglary, or larceny committed against the bank Under 326 the bank must also? Maintain a camera that records activity in the banking offices Use identification devices, such as prerecorded serial numbered bills, or chemical and electronic devices Provide for initial and periodic training of officers and employees in their responsibilities under the security program and in proper employee conduct during and after a robbery, burglary or larceny Provide for selecting, testing, operation and maintaining appropriate security devices: A means of protecting cash or other liquid assets, such as a vault, safe, or other secure space A lighting system for illuminating, during hours of darkness, the area around the vault, if the vault is visible from outside the banking office An alarm system or other appropriate device for promptly notifying the nearest responsible law enforcement officers of an attempted or perpetrated robbery or burglary Tamper-resistant locks on exterior doors and exterior window that may be opened Such other devices as the security officer determines to be appropriate How is the Board affected by 326? The security officer for each insured nonmember bank shall report at least annually to the bank’s board on the implementation, administration, and effectiveness of the security program What are Phase I BSA exemptions? Bank Dept./agency of US Entity established by US/State/Pol. Sub. Stock traded on NYSE,AMSE, NASDQ (except emerging or small cap hedgings) Subsidiary of #4 4&5 only count for domestic operations What was added by Phase II? Non listed Business or payroll customer if: had account for 12 months make regular transactions of <$10M are registered in US How often must banks verify exempt status? At least annually To comply with Part 329 a sweep account must meet what 4 conditions? 1. Arise from a transfer of direct obligations of the United States or agency thereof 2. Be in denominations of less than $100M 3. Mature in less than 90 days 4. Obligate the bank to repurchase the underlying Federal securities Applications What institutions are eligible for Expedited Application Processing? Composite 1 or 2 rating at most recent federal or state examination Satisfactory or better CRA rating from primary regulatory Compliance rating of 1 or 2 Well-capitalized Not subject to cease and desist order, consent order, prompt corrective action directive, written agreement, memorandum of understanding, or other administrative agreement Applications are needed for? Deposit Insurance Establish a Branch or Move Main Office or Branch Consent to Exercise Trust Powers Retirement of Capital Mergers What 8 factors are considered for Applications by Proposed or Newly Organized Institutions? Hint: FFA g CCR Financial History and Condition Future Earning Prospects Adequacy of Capital Structure – for deposit insurance, Tier 1 capital not less than 8.0% for 3 years. Initial capital should normally be in excess of $2 million net of any pre-opening expenses and an adequate allowance for loan and lease losses. General Character of Management Convenience and Needs of the Community to be Served Consistency of Corporate Powers Risk Presented to the Insurance Fund Any person seeking to acquire control (25% or more) of any insured bank or holding company, is required to provide __ days prior written notice to the appropriate agency, and the burden of proof falls on _____. 60 days; the FDIC What are 7 Factors for disapproval? Why Should The Corporation Encourage Failed Entities? would result in a monopoly, substantially lessen competition the financial condition of the acquiring party competence, experience or integrity of any acquirer failure to furnish all information required by FDIC, or the effect on the deposit insurance funds What transactions require after-the-fact notice? Those resulting in a rebuttable presumption of control What does Part 348 prohibit? May not serve on two banks if in same community or contiguous cities May not serve if (banks) in question have offices in same RMSA and each has total assets of $20MM or more. (Relevant Metropolitan Statistical Area) Mgmt. official of bank w/ TA exceeding $2.5 billion may not serve at same time at bank w/ TA exceeding $1.5 billion, regardless of location. A management official of one depository institution or depository holding company from also serving in a similar function in another depository institution or holding company if the companies are not affiliated and are located in the same area or if the organizations are not affiliated and are very large. What are contiguous/adjacent cities? Those within 10 road miles What is a management official for 348? Director Advisory or honorary director of bank w/TA of $100MM or more Sr. Executive Officer Branch Manager Trustee, nominee serving in above capacities. What is a office? Principal office or branch only – not loan production office or trust co. Prohibitions 348.3 What are exempt from 348? closed or nearly closed banks, credit union, state-chartered S&L guaranty corp, FHLB FDIC may permit if (rebuttable): a. The BOD of org being formed is unable to locate other candidate from community or RMSA who has experience and is willing to serve; AND b. The mgmt official is critical to the safe & sound operations; and c. Service by the official will not produce an anticompetitive effect. If improves provision of credit to low & moderate income areas; increases the competitive position of a minority- or woman-owned (bank) Strengthen the mgmt of bank chartered less than 2 yrs or in unsafe or unsound condition. What does Part 349 prohibit? Preferential lending to insiders of a correspondent. What does Part 363 establish? Audit and reporting requirements for insured depository institutions with total assets of $500 million or more and their public accountants. What is the basic purpose of an internal auditor according to the manual? The prevention and detection of loss. Banks subject to 363 must: Engage an independent public accountant Prepare annual financial statement in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles Produce annual reports An annual report must be filed within how many days? Within 90 days of the end of the institution’s fiscal year. Within __ days after receipt, the institution must submit any management letter, the audit report and any qualification to the audit report, and any other report from the accountant to the FDIC. 15 days Within __ days of occurrence, the institution must provide written notice of the engagement of an accountant, the resignation or dismissal of a previously engaged accountant, and the reasons for such an event 15 days What are the requirements for the independent audit committee established under 363? Composed of outside directors independent of management What constitutes a large institution under 363 and what is required of it? Institutions exceeding $3 billion- Audit committee must have two members with banking or related financial expertise, large customers are excluded, and committee must have access to own outside counsel. CIVIL MONEY PENALTIES CMPs may be assessed for the violation of what 4 things? Law or reg Final or temporary order Written condition in FDIC application Written agreement Why are Civil Money Penalties assessed? To punish the violator according to the degree of culpability and severity of the violation To deter future violations Not to affect remedial action Actions provoking CMPs should meet one of the following criteria: Violation causes the bank to suffer a substantial financial loss Violation is willful, flagrant, or otherwise evidences bad faith on the part of the bank or individual(s) involved in the violation (including repeated and/or multiple violations) Violation directly or indirectly involves an insider, or an associate of an insider, who benefits from the transaction in a material of substantial way Previous supervisory means have not been effective in eliminating or deterring violations Note: An attempt should be made to have the individual make restitution to the injured bank for all losses suffered, or absent restitution, repay the personal gain or bank loss through the recommended assessment, plus pay a penalty over and above these amounts for violating the law. What are the 3 tiers of CMP? Tier 1 penalties up to $5,500 per day may be assessed for most violations Tier 2 penalties up to $27,500 per day may be assessed if a party commits a violation, recklessly engages in an unsafe and or unsound practice or breaches a fiduciary duty which is a pattern of misconduct, causes more than minimal loss to the institution or results in a pecuniary gain to such party Tier 3 penalties up to the lessor of $1,100,000 or 1% of total assets may be assessed if a violation, unsafe or unsound practice, or breach of fiduciary duty is knowingly committed and causes a substantial loss to the institution or a substantial pecuniary gain to the violator How are individuals treated differently than banks? Individuals do not recive the 1% cap for Tier 3 penalties. What are the penalties for late or false Call Reports? Inadvertent – $2,000/day Not inadvertent - $20,000/day Knowingly or recklessly with disregard - $1,000,000 or 1% Total assets/day Misc. What is the difference between a state certified appraiser and a state licensed appraiser? Part 323 required a state certified appraiser for non-residential loans $250, 000 or more and all loans $1,000,000 or more Either a licensed or certified appraiser is needed for loans more than $250,000 Certified is superior When a bank is inadequately capitalized do you cite a violation or a contravention of policy? A violation is cited only if Tier 1 is under 3 or 4%. A contravention is cited if a bank is undercapitalized due to either of the risk based capital ratios. How is the TT&L Note Option treated for Call Report purposes? It is a deposit for the first day and other borrowed money from then on. Conversion Factor Matrix for Derivative Contracts Add total replacment cost (the sum of all positive market values) plus potental increase in exposure (market price X percent in table below. PRIVATEInt. RateExch. Rate/GoldEquityPrecious Metal not GoldOther 1 yr or less0.0%1.0%6.0%7.0%10.0%1 yr to 5 yr0.5%5.0%8.0%7.0%12.0%More than 5 yr1.5%7.5%10.0%8.0%15.0% R&R to know Applications Appraisal 325 Capital maintenance Security and BSA Amount of Ins Unsafe and Unsound Practices Mgt. Interlocks Debt to Correspondent Banks 350 Disclosure of Financial info. 363 Audit Standards for S&S RE Lending DOS Manual Sec. 1.1 –Basic Exam Concepts and Guidelines What does “UFIRS” stand for? Uniform Financial Institutions Rating System What does “FFIEC” stand for? Federal Financial Institutions Examination Council What does SCOR stand for? Statistical Camels Off-sight Rating When can the FDIC alternate with the State? 1 or 2 rated 3 rated and stable/improving if rating is confirmed by SCOR and no adverse trends noted from other info. How are exam intervals calculated? Time between the end of one to the start of the next (end is earlier of day sent or 60 days after start date) What are the general guidelines for coordinating exams with other federal agencies? BHC subsidiaries >$10 billion Generally banks > $1 billion with financial weakness Are specialty exams covered by 10 (d) No, governed by internal DOS policy not statute. 3 rated specialty areas can be extended by RD How much notice should be given to banks before exams? Generally, 2 weeks notice should be give. Can shorten for scheduling or bank problems. What are the 4 rated IS components? (AMDS) Audit Management Development and acquisition Support and delivery What is the DCA rating scheme? 1-5 overall except CRA which is: Outstanding, Satisfactory, Needs to improve, and Substantial noncompliance How long should the Officer’s Questionnaire be retained Minimum 5 years from start date Section 2 of the FDI Act How many members on the FDIC’s Board? 5 Who are they? Comptroller of the Currency; Director of the Office of Thrift Supervision (ACTING OFFICIALS MAY SERVE) 3 appointed by the President, 1 of whom shall have State bank supervisory experience. Are there any restrictions on political affiliation? Not more than 3 Board members of the same political party. Term of Chairman Five years Term of interim appointments? Only finish the term When can a board member go back into banking? After two years unless they serve their whole term, then right away is O.K. Calculate Macaulay Duration, for a 3 year bond, 10% coupon, 10% yield PRIVATEYearPaymentPV T PV * T1$100$90.9190.92$100$82.62165.23$1,100$826.432,479.3$1,000.02,735.4Macauley Duration = 2,735/1,000 = 2.74 years Calculate its Modified duration, Macauley Duration = 2.74 years PRIVATEModified Duration = Macauley Duration (1 + Yield) = (2.49%) price decreases by approximately 2.5 percent. What banks should not rely on modified duration? Banks with significant option risk should not rely upon modified duration to measure IRR. When can banks use push-down accounting? When a bank is purchased but keeps its identity they can use if over 80% purchased They have to use if over 95% is purchased How are Dollar Repos different from regular repos? Repos need to repurchase the same security Dollar Repos have to purchase “substantially the same security” they are used to cover shorts and they need to own for 35 days before they can enter a repo Ethics What 5 people can’t you take gifts from? Seeking action from the FDIC Does or wants to do biz w/ FDIC Regulated by FDIC Interest are effected by your job Organizations w/ a majority of their members fitting into 1-4 What are the 4 ethics exceptions for most government employees (FDIC is exempt) $20 or less ($50/yr) cant be cash Personal Relationship Discount Awards/ honorary degree What are the 8 admin procedures for sub-prime lending? CAMFLS 3 Collection procedures Criteria for /x/ Content and frequency of management reports Asset classification criteria Methodology for ALLL Foreclosure and Repossessions Loss recognition Statements and billing procedures Limited scope exams are used for? Can Make Some Investigations Drag On Indefinitely Change in risk profile Monitor compliance w/ corrective program SCOR follow up Investigate unusual or adverse situations Determine progress in correcting deficiencies Other situations Investigative or supervisory tool What are other uses of a limited scope? New charter ( 6mo. full 1st –3rd yrs) Convert to SNM ( 3mo. full in 1yr) Change in ownership (6mo. full 1 yr) FDIC assumption Directors are held liable for? Board Meetings FUN? Breach of Trust Missapproporation of funds Fraud Ultra vires acts Negligence resulting in loss IS workprogram should be used? No testing and vendor supported Some testing need AD approval if >$300MM ATMs, POS, ACH any bank Serviced by outside vendor Not used if the bank services another bank Blanket bond coverages: A: Fidelity B: on premises C: in transit D: Forgery/Alteration (optional) E: Securities (optional) F: Counterfeit currency How do you calculate a gap ratio? (RSA-RSL)/Avg. earning assets What securities have negative convexity? Those with embedded options. What are the Trust Rating components? SO ACE Management OP, Controls, Audit Asset management Compliance Earnings What are the 5 qualifying beneficiaries for testimony accounts (part 330)? Parent Sibling Spouse Child Grandchild What 3 things does Reg F require? Written policy Internal limits only when significant risk Overnight credit exposure is limited to 25% of capital unless at lest adequately capitalized What is the Rationale of Bank Examinations? 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