Chapter 1 Psychology and Life
Chapter 1 What Is Psychology?
How Accurate Is the Image of Psychology?
1. Psychology is the science of
a. behavior and mental processes.
b. behavior and emotions.
c. emotions and mental processes.
d. unconscious motives and behavior.
2. Which of the following is the most accurate image of an average psychologist today?
a. a laboratory researcher wearing a white coat and running rats through a maze
b. a Freudian psychoanalyst with patients who sit on a couch
c. a scientist who seeks to understand human behavior, emotion, and thought
d. a mind reader who can quickly figure out what people are thinking
How Did Psychology Begin?
3. Structuralism postulated that consciousness
a. is streaming all the time and can’t be divided.
b. not understandable because it can’t be seen directly.
c. is essential to survival and is thus best studied as a whole construct.
d. can be broken into smaller elemental units which can be studied.
4. Which technique used to examine mental processes is most associated with structuralism?
a. magnetic resonance imaging
b. introspection
c. survey administration
d. biofeedback
5. This school of psychological thought was an outgrowth of structuralism, but was more concerned with studying how consciousness was related to environmental adaptation.
a. functionalism
b. Gestalt psychology
c. humanism
d. psychoanalysis
6. Wertheimer and Koffka were among the first psychologists to begin this school of thought which asserted that it is necessary to study the whole of a person’s experience, not just parts.
a. behaviorism
b. cognitive psychology
c. Gestalt psychology
d. humanistic psychology
7. Sigmund Freud is best known as the founder of this psychological school of thought, which stresses the large influence of unconscious processes in everyday behavior.
a. functionalism
b. psychoanalysis
c. structuralism
d. behaviorism
8. This field of psychology advocated the abandonment of studying consciousness, and Skinner, one of its greatest proponents, posited that the environment almost completely determines what we do.
a. functionalism
b. evolutionary psychology
c. psychoanalysis
d. behaviorism
9. Which field of psychology arose as a reaction against psychoanalysis and behaviorism and concentrated on an assumed inherent tendency toward personal growth?
a. cognitive psychology
b. humanistic psychology
c. structuralism
d. Gestalt psychology
10. Which of the psychological fields focuses on studying thought and mental processes?
a. Gestalt psychology
b. evolutionary psychology
c. cognitive psychology
d. functionalism
What Trends Currently Shape Psychology?
11. Which is the most accurate statement regarding women in psychology today?
a. Women earn almost none of the bachelor’s and doctoral degrees in psychology today.
b. Women earn fewer bachelor’s and doctoral degrees in psychology today than do men.
c. Women earn about the same number of bachelor’s and doctoral degrees as men today.
d. Women earn more bachelor’s and doctoral degrees in psychology today than do men.
12. Who is often considered to be the “father of African American psychology?”
a. Francis C. Sumner
b. Howard H. Long
c. Albert S. Beckham
d. Kenneth Clark
13. This school of psychology examines how the nervous system and heredity affect behavior and mental processes.
a. cognitive psychology
b. evolutionary psychology
c. biopsychology
d. positive psychology
14. Industrial/organizational psychology focuses on studying how
a. people can organize to form bigger industries.
b. the work environment affects individual behavior.
c. manipulation of pay and benefits and increase worker productivity.
d. emphasis on respect for one another can make a nicer work setting.
15. Which of the following are relatively new fields which are emerging in psychology?
a. structuralism and behaviorism
b. Gestalt psychology and psychoanalysis
c. industrial/organizational psychology and functionalism
d. positive psychology and evolutionary psychology
Who Are these People Called Psychologists?
16. This mental health practitioner is a medical doctor who specializes in treating mental disorders.
a. clinical psychologist
b. counseling psychologist
c. psychiatrist
d. psychiatric technician
17. Which of the following is NOT a major psychology subfield listed in this chapter?
a. experimental research
b. human services
c. resource speculation
d. applied research
18. In which of the following positions would you find the greatest number of psychologists?
a. administrators in research settings
b. school service providers
c. applied psychologists in industrial/organizational settings
d. clinical service providers
19. Which mental health provider is generally uses psychoanalysis and is often a medical doctor?
a. clinical psychologist
b. psychoanalyst
c. psychometric technician
d. counseling psychologist
20. What do experimental psychologists tend to study?
a. the basic elements of behavior and mental processes
b. the effectiveness of mental health treatments
c. the practical elements of prominent social problems
d. the use of psychology in work and school settings
How Should You Use This Textbook?
21. Which of the following is NOT a recurring theme in psychology listed in this chapter?
a. the relationship between brain and behavior
b. the role of nature and nurture in human thought and behavior
c. the role of human diversity in shaping people’s ideas and actions
d. the evolution of humans over the eons from primitive to complex creatures
22. Which of the following is a good way to use psychology to become a better student?
a. plan a realistic schedule
b. manage the tendency to procrastinate
c. set reasonable goals
d. all of the above
23. Which fields of research were the bases for developing the learning tools in this textbook?
a. learning and memory
b. motivation
c. social behavior
d. all of the above
24. Which of the following best exemplifies active learning?
a. organizing lecture information into an outline and asking questions while reading
b. refraining from taking notes in a lecture in order to better hear the instructor
c. reading the text only the night before the test, in order to have it stick in memory better
d. attending only important lectures and reading only enough material to cover the test
25. What types of benefits can be derived from joining a study support group?
a. finding emotional support
b. getting boosts in motivation
c. receiving good information and assistance
d. all of the above
Chapter 2 The Science of Psychology
What Makes Psychology A Science?
1. This is the idea that knowledge should be acquired through careful observation.
a. subjectivism
b. individualism
c. empiricism
d. generalism
2. Which of the following is NOT a main principle of scientific endeavor listed in this chapter?
a. subjectivity
b. objectivity
c. systematic observation
d. replicability
3. Which of the following is the most correct sequence for the scientific method?
a. design study, develop hypothesis, state problem, collect/analyze data, draw conclusions
b. state problem, develop hypothesis, design study, collect/analyze data, draw conclusions
c. collect/analyze data, draw conclusions, state problem, develop hypothesis, design study
d. develop hypothesis, collect/analyze data, draw conclusions, state problem, design study
4. On which two premises are all modern sciences based?
a. empiricism and practical knowledge
b. theory formulation and logical deduction
c. data collection and interpretation
d. empiricism and theory formulation
5. When you evaluate a research study, on which five aspects should you most focus?
a. purpose, methods, participants, conclusions, replicability
b. authors, location of study, methods, uniqueness of study, discussion
c. background, methods, conclusions, applicability, clarity of writing
d. popularity of concept, ease of reading, publication source, size of text, number of citations
What Research Methods Do Psychologists Use?
6. The subjects of an experiment who are assigned to a group that does NOT receive any level of the independent variable or experimental treatment, are participants in the
a. progressive group.
b. experimental group.
c. unincorporated group.
d. control group.
7. An experiment tries to tell whether manipulations of the ________ variable have an effect on measurements of the ________ variable.
a. independent, dependent
b. dependent, independent
c. correlational, control
d. control, correlational
8. Which method specifically describes differences among groups or classes of participants?
a. case study
b. naturalistic observation
c. correlational study
d. ex post facto study
9. The description of intensive observations and analysis of a single participant, exemplifies a
a. correlational study.
b. experimental study.
c. case study.
d. naturalistic study.
10. When a sample reflects pertinent characteristics of the population from which it was drawn, it is said to be
a. adequate.
b. representative.
c. perfect.
d. accidental.
How Do Psychologists Evaluate their Research Findings?
11. If the number of assaults increases with increases in temperature, this would be a(n)
a. negative correlation.
b. positive correlation.
c. neutral correlation.
d. interesting relationship.
12. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
a. variance
b. mean
c. median
d. mode
13. When you subtract the lowest score from the highest score in a data set, the resulting number is called the
a. correlation coefficient.
b. standard deviation.
c. median.
d. range.
14. A significant difference means that the results
a. are unlikely to have occurred by chance alone.
b. have great practical value.
c. are very interesting to the researcher.
d. are understandable only in the context of its significance.
15. Which of the following is the tendency to believe that one’s own cultural group is the standard against which others should be judged?
a. xenophobia
b. discrimination
c. ethonocentrism
d. unilateralism
What Ethical Principles Guide Psychology Research?
16. With regard to research, ethics can best be described as
a. what one can get away with.
b. rules concerning proper and acceptable conduct.
c. the laws dictating how research may be conducted.
d. an individual’s beliefs as to what is proper.
17. Which of the following is a procedure to inform participants as to the true nature of a study once it has been completed?
a. teleconferencing
b. issuing a completion certificate
c. debriefing
d. retroactive assent
18. What is the key to obtaining true informed consent?
a. that the participant is knowledgeable as to the nature of the research
b. that the participant agrees to waive his or her rights in order to participate
c. that the participant signs a paper that is kept on file for at least a decade
d. that the participant gets some type of compensation for his or her participation
19. Which of the following is most correct regarding what guides ethics in psychology?
a. concern for the results of studies conducted
b. the advancement of the research field
c. the rights of animals and human beings
d. the understanding that rights are not a given for anyone
20. Which of the following statements about nonhuman animal research is most accurate?
a. Research with nonhuman animals is fading away and is almost non-existent today.
b. Research with nonhuman animals continues, but it is well-accepted and not controversial.
c. Research with nonhuman animals continues, but it is still quite controversial.
d. Research with nonhuman animals is useless because animals are not people.
Chapter 3 Neuroscience: The Brain and Behavior
How Is the Nervous System Organized?
1. The three most basic parts of a neuron are:
a. vesicles, gray matter, and synapse
b. cell body, axon, and dendrites
c. telodendria, axon, and axon terminals
d. myelin sheath, cell body, and dendrites
2. Dendrites are structures that
a. carry signals out to other neurons.
b. nourish and support the other neurons.
c. make signals travel more quickly.
d. carry signals in from other neurons.
3. Sensory neurons that send messages to the spinal cord and brain are known as what?
a. afferent neurons
b. efferent neurons
c. interneurons
d. glial neruons
4. The idea that the action potential must reach a threshold before firing, and that once it’s reached, the neuron must fire its action potential, is known as the:
a. now or never law
b. all or none law
c. boisterous ordinance
d. give and take rule
5. When a postsynaptic potential (PSP) is received by a cell, if it is excitatory it will ________, while if it is inhibitory it will ________.
a. trigger the relapse of neurotransmitters; trigger the absorption of neurotransmitters
b. trigger the absorption of neurotransmitters; trigger the release of neurotransmitters
c. move the neuron toward threshold and firing; move the neuron away from threshold and firing
d. move the neuron away from threshold and firing; move the neuron toward threshold and firing
6. This is the first excitatory neurotransmitter discovered, which is crucial in exciting skeletal muscles and allowing us to move, and it is also important in memory and learning.
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. serotonin
d. dopamine
7. Which is the correct subdivision of the Central Nervous System (CNS)?
a. autonomic and somatic
b. cerebral cortex and cerebellum
c. brain and spinal cord
d. blood brain barrier and cerebrospinal fluid
8. Which is the correct subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?
a. autonomic and somatic
b. cerebral cortex and cerebellum
c. brain and spinal cord
d. blood brain barrier and cerebrospinal fluid
9. If a patient has suffered a brain and as a result sleeps most of the time and has great difficulty waking up, the damage is most likely to be in the
a. cerebellum.
b. hypothalamus.
c. corpus callosum.
d. reticular formation.
10. This pea-sized gland is just below the structure that serves as a routing station for sensory information. It affects many complex behaviors such as eating, drinking, and sexual activity.
a. adrenal gland
b. thyroid
c. hypothalamus
d. hippocampus
How Does the Brain Function?
11. The area of the brain most responsible for the production of language is ________, while the area most responsible for the comprehension of language is ________.
a. Wernicke’s; Broca’s
b. Broca’s; Wernicke’s
c. thalamus; hypothalamus
d. left hemisphere; right hemisphere
12. Which of the following is NOT a brain imaging technique?
a. magnetic resonance imaging
b. positron emission tomography
c. galvanic response detection
d. electroencephalogram
13. In split-brain surgery, the ________ is surgically severed in order to disconnect the two cerebral hemispheres.
a. cerebellum
b. pons
c. reticular formation
d. corpus callosum
14. To what does the term plasticity refer?
a. the capability for the brain to grow and develop throughout the lifespan
b. it denotes the fragile state of the brain and the ease by which it can be damaged
c. that when exposed to extreme heat, the brain can easily melt
d. the lack of any permanent sets of connections in the brain
What Effects Do Hormones Have on Behavior?
15. What chemicals which affect specific organs and cells, are released by endocrine glands?
a. neurotransmitters
b. action potentials
c. hormones
d. pheromones
16. The body’s “master gland” which regulates the actions of many other endocrine, is called the
a. adrenal gland.
b. thyroid.
c. hippocampus.
d. pituitary gland.
17. Insulin is produced by what organ?
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. small intestine
d. gall bladder
How Do Genetic Factors Affect Behavior?
18. The recurring theme in psychology that attempts to discern the relative influence of heredity versus environment, is known as the ________ debate.
a. natural versus supernatural
b. genetics versus behaviorism
c. nature versus nurture
d. reality versus fantasy
19. Genes are
a. microscopic strands of DNA found in the nucleus of every cell.
b. the functional unit of hereditary transmission.
c. the powerhouse of the cell, creating energy and processing waste.
d. blue, cotton pants worn by many of today’s youth.
20. If someone actually has brown eyes, this is his or her
a. phenotype.
b. genotype.
c. genetic inevitability.
d. genetic mutation.
21. Another word for identical twins is ________ twins.
a. analogous
b. monozygotic
c. dizygotic
d. hyperzygotic
22. The total sequence of genes on our DNA is called the ________ while the study of the entire pattern of genes in an individual is called _________.
a. DNA pattern; DNAology
b. double-helix structure; helixonomy
c. zygotic arrangement; zygonomics
d. genome; genomics
Does Our Evolutionary History Influence Our Current Behavior?
23. This is the concept whereby the characteristics and behaviors which help organisms to adapt and survive, are passed onto successive generations.
a. adaptation
b. mutation
c. natural selection
d. expected heredity
24. Which field of study is most likely to be concerned with whether or not men are sexually promiscuous by nature?
a. cognitive psychology
b. evolutionary psychology
c. Darwinian psychology
d. psychoanalytic psychology
25. Which of the following might be expressions of evolved tendencies?
a. loyalty
b. jealousy
c. pride
d. all of the above
Chapter 4 Child Development
What Are the Central Issues of Development?
1. The study of lifelong, often age-related processes of change in humans is known as ________ psychology.
a. developmental
b. geriatric
c. youth-elderly
d. social
2. Dr. Smith studied preschoolers by comparing a group of three-year-olds with a group of four-year-olds. Dr. Jones studied the same topic by observing a group of three-year-olds and then observing the same children a year later. Dr. Smith used a ________ research design, while Dr. Jones used a ________ research design.
a. longitudinal, cross-sectional
b. cognitive, developmental
c. developmental, cognitive
d. cross-sectional, longitudinal
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the key issues listed in the chapter?
a. whether development is a result of nature or nurture
b. whether people are active or passive in exploring their world
c. whether people change or stay pretty much the same throughout their lives
d. whether developmental processes are wholly different for males and females
How Does Physical Development Proceed?
4. The one-celled organism made by the union of a sperm and an egg is called the
a. embryo.
b. fetus.
c. zygote.
d. infant.
5. A(n) ________ is a time in the development of an organism when it is especially sensitive to certain environmental influences.
a. essential window
b. critical period
c. crisis zone
d. teratogen
6. The leading known preventable cause of mental retardation in newborns is associated with maternal
a. cigarette smoking.
b. contraction of rubella.
c. alcohol consumption.
d. cocaine use.
7. Substances which can produce birth defects during the prenatal period are called
a. drugs.
b. hormones.
c. teratogens.
d. placentric substances.
8. Which of the following reflexes causes a newborn to fan out the toes when the sole of the foot is touched?
a. Babinski
b. Moro
c. rooting
d. fanning
9. The use of the visual cliff method with infants, is used to study what?
a. motor coordination
b. depth perception
c. maternal attachment
d. language development
How Does Thought Develop?
10. The process by which people absorb new ideas and experiences into existing psychological structures is called:
a. accommodation
b. assimilation
c. decentration
d. sensory-motor ability
11. Eight-month-old David picked up his mother’s keys. His mother then put them under a cloth. David acted as if the keys no longer existed and failed to lift the cloth up to find them. It is likely David has
a. developed the concept of conservation.
b. not developed the concept of conservation.
c. developed the concept of object permanence.
d. not developed the concept of object permanence
12. Four-year-old Betty watched her mom split a canned drink between Betty and her sister. Mom poured Betty’s half into a short fat glass and her sister’s into a tall thin glass. Betty threw a fit, saying her sister got more than she did. Betty’s reaction shows that she has
a. developed the concept of conservation.
b. not developed the concept of conservation.
c. developed the concept of object permanence.
d. not developed the concept of object permanence.
13. During which of Piaget’s developmental stages do children first begin to develop some coordination skills and remember past events?
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. concrete operational
d. formal operational
14. During which of Piaget’s developmental stages do children develop the ability to think abstractly and systematically?
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. concrete operational
d. formal operational
15. What is the name of Vygotsky’s notion of a gap between a child’s current abilities and what s/he might be able to accomplish with some guidance?
a. comprehension differential zone
b. zone of proximal development
c. zone of critical period
d. the Montessori zone
How Do Social and Emotional Development Proceed?
16. According to Harlow’s classic attachment research, baby monkeys clung to which “mother?”
a. The bare-wire mother surrogate.
b. The terry-cloth mother surrogate.
c. They clung to both mothers equally.
d. They clung to neither mother, but hid in a corner instead.
17. Secure babies generally have caregivers who are
a. overly protective.
b. firm and strict disciplinarians.
c. affectionate and responsive.
d. well-educated.
18. The early emerging and long-lasting pattern in an individual’s disposition is called what?
a. temperament
b. attitude
c. belief system
d. moral stance
19. In Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory, the level characterized by an obedience and punishment orientation or an egocentric orientation, is called
a. preconventional
b. conventional
c. postconventional
d. political conventional
20. On what major variable did Carol Gilligan find Kohlberg’s moral development theory to be biased?
a. age
b. education level
c. gender
d. race
What Environmental Factors Are Important for Social Development?
21. According to a NICHD study of 1,300 families, which of the following is most accurate?
a. Affection from mothers is more important to child development.
b. Affection from fathers is more important to child development.
c. Affection from both parents is important to child development.
d. Affection from parents is not important to child development.
22. Gender role is a set of expectations about what behaviors and responsibilities are appropriate for males and females. Inferring from the text, what source is primary in transmitting these expectations?
a. peers
b. parents
c. society at large
d. all of the above
23. Erickson’s idea that we go through a stage of basic trust versus mistrust, occurs during approximately what period of life?
a. birth to 18 months
b. 3 to 6 years
c. 6 to 12 years
d. 12 years and beyond
24. During which of Erikson’s stages would a child be negotiating the challenge of toilet training?
a. trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. industry versus inferiority
25. During which of Erikson’s stages would a child be negotiating the challenge of beginning school?
a. trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame and doubt
c. initiative versus guilt
d. industry versus inferiority
Chapter 5 Adolescence and Adulthood
How Do Adolescents Bridge the Gap to Adulthood?
1. This is the period during which the reproductive system matures.
a. adolescence
b. puberty
c. pre-puberty
d. early adulthood
2. Secondary sex characteristics are
a. directly involved in reproduction.
b. not directly involved with reproduction.
c. features of the testes in males and the ovaries in females.
d. not genetically determined.
3. The eating disorder characterized by maintaining normal body weight, but binging on food and then either vomiting it up or purging through excessive use of laxatives is called
a. obesity.
b. anorexia nervosa.
c. bulimia nervosa.
d. purging disorder.
4. ________ is a cognitive distortion whereby an adolescent feels s/he is so special and unique that they are invulnerable to risk and that others could not possible understand them.
a. Personal fable
b. Imaginary audience
c. Cognitive dissonance
d. Availability heuristic
5. One’s feeling of being a member of a particular cultural group is known as what?
a. gender identity
b. social identity
c. family identity
d. ethnic identity
6. Which of the following is a possible outcome in the development of gender identity?
a. masculine identity
b. feminine identity
c. androgynous identity
d. all of the above
Is Adulthood A Time of Stability or Change?
7. What is the condition of aging where bone tissue deteriorates and bone mass is low?
a. osteoporosis
b. arthritis
c. Alzheimer's
d. rheumatism
8. The cessation of the menstrual cycle in women around age 50 is known as what?
a. menarche
b. spermarche
c. menopause
d. womenopause
9. Which of the following is NOT a theory of aging listed in the text?
a. heredity
b. external factors
c. physiology
d. mystical
10. In which of Erikson’s stages would you expect one to be negotiating the challenges of parenting and work life?
a. identity versus role confusion
b. intimacy versus isolation
c. generativity versus stagnation
d. ego integrity versus dispair
11. In which of Erikson’s stages would you expect one to evaluate their entire life retrospectively?
a. identity versus role confusion
b. intimacy versus isolation
c. generativity versus stagnation
d. ego integrity versus dispair
Do We Grow Older and Wiser In Late Adulthood?
12. What is the present average life expectancy in the United States?
a. 66
b. 77
c. 88
d. 99
13. What is the most rapidly growing age group in the United States?
a. 40 to 55
b. 55 to 70
c. 75 to 85
d. 85 and older
14. Alzheimer's disease is associated with all of these EXCEPT:
a. deterioration in memory
b. increased acetylcholine
c. poor visual/spatial skills
d. decreased language ability
15. What is the name for the study of psychological and medical aspects of death and dying?
a. thanatology
b. gerontology
c. dying process science
d. terminology
Chapter 6 Sensation and Perception
How Are Stimulation and Perception Linked?
1. The process in which receptor cells are stimulated to relay initial information to the brain is called ________, while our interpretation of this information is called ________.
a. perception; sensation
b. sensation; perception
c. top-down analysis; bottom-up analysis
d. bottom-up analysis; top-down analysis
2. This is the subfield of psychology which focuses on the relation between physical stimuli and people’s conscious experiences of them.
a. perceptionology
b. sensationology
c. astrophysics
d. psychophysics
3. The ________ is the statistically determined minimal level of stimulation needed to excite a perceptual system.
a. perceptual upper limit
b. perceptual lower limit
c. absolute threshold
d. sensory gateway
4. Signal detection theory holds that perception depends not only on the intensity of a stimulus, but also on what?
a. the observer’s motivation
b. the observer’s criteria for the stimulus
c. the background noise
d. all of the above
5. Perception that occurs below the threshold of awareness is ________ by definition.
a. subliminal
b. conscious
c. cognizant
d. noticed
How Do We See the World?
6. Transduction is a process in which
a. the brain recognizes and interprets sensory inputs.
b. light images are focused clearly on the retina.
c. stimulus energy is converted into neural impulses.
d. sound waves are passed through the ossicles.
7. Which of the receptors in the retina are primarily responsible for color vision?
a. rods
b. cones
c. shafts
d. spindles
8. In which lobe is the visual cortex located?
a. parietal
b. occipital
c. frontal
d. temporal
9. The ________ theory posits that there are six basic colors coded visually by varying responses of three types of paired receptors: red-green, blue-yellow, and white-black.
a. trichromatic
b. bichromatic
c. opponent-process
d. saturation-brightness
10. People who see all colors and do not have any color perception deficits are known as
a. monochromats.
b. dichromats.
c. trichromats.
d. quadchromats.
How Do We Perceive form and Substance?
11. Depth perception cues which rely on the use of both eyes are known as ________ depth cues.
a. monocular
b. binocular
c. trinocular
d. quadocular
12. Retinal disparity refers to what?
a. the difference between images projected on the two retinas
b. the qualitative differences in the design of the two retinas
c. the quantitative differences in the amount of data taken in by the two retinas
d. the difference in the number of retinas in each eye
13. This is the change in the shape of the eye’s lens that occurs when an observer keeps an object in focus as it moves closer or farther from the observer.
a. assimilation
b. perceptual distortion
c. convergence
d. accommodation
14. _________ is the inability to recognize a sensory stimulus that should be recognized, despite having intact perceptual systems.
a. Amnesia
b. Dementia
c. Interference
d. Agnosia
15. Which of the following is NOT a Gestalt law of organization listed in the text?
a. law of proximity
b. law of similarity
c. law of reduction
d. law of continuity
How Do We Perceive Sounds?
16. The number of complete sound waves passing a point, per unit of time, measured in hertz, is called
a. sound.
b. frequency.
c. pitch.
d. amplitude.
17. The total energy of a sound wave which determines its loudness or intensity, is called
a. sound.
b. frequency.
c. pitch.
d. amplitude.
18. The hammer, anvil, and stirrup, are structures called ossicles. Where are they found?
a. the outer ear
b. the middle ear
c. the inner ear
d. the auditory nerve tract
19. These types of ideas hold that human sound analysis occurs due to different frequencies and intensities of sound waves affecting different parts of the basilar membrane.
a. frequency theories
b. intensity theories
c. place theories
d. tone theories
20. _________ deafness results from damage to the cochlea, auditory nerve, or related processing areas in the brain.
a. Senorineural
b. Conduction
c. Congenital
d. Tone
Which Senses Are the Least Understood?
21. Which of the following is NOT a type of taste detected by the taste buds?
a. sweet
b. oily
c. salty
d. sour
22. What is the other term for taste buds?
a. papillae
b. microvilli
c. enterocytes
d. taste membranes
23. What other sense is heavily involved in the sense of taste?
a. vision
b. olfaction
c. touch
d. hearing
24. Humans can distinguish approximately how many different scents?
a. 100
b. 1,000
c. 10,000
d. 100,000
25. ________ are chemical substances that are detected by the olfactory sense, which act as a means of communication between animals.
a. Hormones
b. Clorinones
c. Homophones
d. Pheromones
What Is the Relationship Between touch and Pain?
26. Which of the following is NOT one of the three layers of skin?
a. epidermis
b. retrodermis
c. dermis
d. hypodermis
27. Which variable class affects the perception of pain?
a. biological
b. psychological
c. environmental
d. all of the above
28. ________ are painkilling chemicals produced naturally in the brain and pituitary gland.
a. Hormones
b. Pheromones
c. Endorphins
d. Opiates
29. Which of the following can make pain worse?
a. anxiety
b. worry
c. negative attitude
d. all of the above
How Do We Keep Our Balance?
30. This is the awareness aroused by movements of the muscles, tendons, and joints.
a. kinesthesis
b. anesthesis
c. parathesis
d. hyperthesis
31. The ________ sense is that of bodily orientation and postural adjustment.
a. vestibular
b. cerebellar
c. inner-ear
d. vertigular
Does Extrasensory Perception Exist?
32. This is the ability to transfer thoughts from one person to another.
a. clairvoyance
b. precognition
c. psychokinesis
d. telepathy
33. This is the ability to recognize objects or events that are not discernable by normal sensory receptors.
a. clairvoyance
b. precognition
c. psychokinesis
d. telepathy
Chapter 7 Consciousness
What Is Consciousness?
1. Consciousness is
a. being awake.
b. a general state of being aware and responsive.
c. a state of morality where you can tell right from wrong.
d. the place from which Freud said almost all motivations come.
What Happens When We Sleep?
2. Circadian rhythms operate on approximately what time frame?
a. a 90-minute cycle
b. a 24-hour cycle
c. a 28-day cycle
d. a 1-year cycle
3. REM sleep occurs at what point in the stages of sleep?
a. at stage 2 on the first pass through
b. at stage 4 on the first pass through
c. at stage 1 after the cycle has progressed back down from stage 4
d. at the end of the night when the sleep cycle has finished its rotation
4. What type of record is used to measure brain wave activity in sleep?
a. electrocardiogram (EKG)
b. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. computerized tomography (CT)
d. electroencephalogram (EEG)
5. Someone who experiences sudden sleep “attacks” when they should normally be awake, has what disorder?
a. insomnia
b. narcolepsy
c. sleep apnea
d. night terrors
6. What is it called when one wakes up with symptoms of panic about 60 to 90 minutes after going to sleep, but does not remember having a nightmare?
a. insomnia
b. narcolepsy
c. sleep apnea
d. night terror
7. Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening sleep disorder which involves the stoppage of airflow to the lungs for at least 15 seconds?
a. insomnia
b. narcolepsy
c. sleep apnea
d. night terrors
8. Approximately what percentage of American adults regularly get less than the recommended amount of sleep?
a. 17%
b. 37%
c. 47%
d. 67%
What Are Dreams and What Do they Mean?
9. This is a state of consciousness during sleep which is usually accompanied by vivid imagery.
a. dream
b. fantasy
c. vision
d. hallucination
10. According to Freud, the overt story line of a dream is called ________ content, while its deeper underlying meaning, involving symbols of repressed ideas and wishes, is called ________ content.
a. latent; manifest
b. manifest; latent
c. obvious; subtle
d. subtle; obvious
11. Which theory holds that dreaming is just a continuation of waking thought processes which have no hidden meaning, but rather reflect everyday concerns?
a. Freudian theory
b. evolutionary view
c. cognitive view
d. physiological view
12. The experience where a dreamer realizes in the dream that they are dreaming, and where they may then manipulate the dream content, is known as a
a. non-REM dream.
b. lucid dream.
c. manifest content experience.
d. Kafkaesque experience.
13. What is Jung’s concept of a shared storehouse of primitive ideas and images that are charged with emotionally rich symbolism, which all humans have inherited from our ancestors?
a. personal unconscious
b. collective unconscious
c. metaphysical unconscious
d. mystical unconscious
Is It Possible to Control Consciousness By Using Biofeedback, Hypnosis or Meditation?
14. The technique by which a person can learn to control some of their usually involuntary biological processes, such as blood pressure and heart rate, by monitoring physiological measures is called
a. hypnosis.
b. meditation.
c. response generalization.
d. biofeedback.
15. Which of the following is the most accurate description of hypnosis?
a. Hypnotized people are under the complete control of the hypnotist.
b. Hypnotized people are generally good at visualization and concentration.
c. Hypnotized people are generally weak-willed or unintelligent.
d. Hypnosis is impossible and those who appear to be hypnotized are just faking.
16. What is the key factor in determining whether hypnosis will have a lasting effect on a person?
a. the depth of the trance
b. the hypnotist’s training, credentials, and pacing of the induction
c. the subject’s degree of susceptibility to suggestion
d. the duration of the trance
17. ________ is actually a variety of techniques which produce feelings of detachment and deep relaxation.
a. Meditation
b. Hypnosis
c. Lucid dreaming
d. Biofeedback
18. In practicing meditation, a word repeated over and over in voice or in the mind, is known as a
a. tantra.
b. mindsong.
c. mantra.
d. repetition.
How Do Drugs Alter Consciousness?
19. When a markedly increased intake of the substance is needed to achieve the same effect, or with continued use the same amount of the substance has markedly less effect, this is known as
a. extraction.
b. tolerance.
c. dependence.
d. psychoactivity.
20. When a person suffers withdrawal symptoms in stopping use of a drug that has become part of the body’s functioning, this is indicative of
a. extraction.
b. tolerance.
c. dependence.
d. psychoactivity.
21. What is the mechanism that regulates molecules in terms of their being able to pass into the brain?
a. blood-cerebrospinal blockade
b. blood-brain barrier
c. medulla oblongata
d. central nervous system
22. Which of the following drug class is known to kill pain, have sedative-hypnotic properties, and is highly addictive?
a. cannabis
b. cocaine
c. opiates
d. methamphetamine
23. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a psychedelic drug?
a. lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD)
b. marijuana
c. ecstasy (MDMA)
d. morphine
Chapter 8 Learning
What Type of Learning Is Pavlovian, or Classical, Condition?
1. For years Mike’s mother has lit candles on the table when it’s time for dinner. The smell of candles now makes his mouth water due to the process of
a. classical conditioning.
b. cognitive restructuring.
c. operant conditioning.
d. neural realignment.
2. An unconditioned stimulus is a
a. stimulus that is always present in the environment.
b. previously neutral stimulus that elicits a response after learning.
c. stimulus that produces a response without prior learning.
d. response that is elicited by unusual stimuli.
3. You start feeding your dog canned food. The first time you run the electric opener, the dog pays no attention to the noise, but runs over when it smells the food. Eventually, the dog comes running when it hears the can opener. The can opener noise making the dog come running represents a(n)
a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. conditioned response.
4. Who is most associated with discovering the concept of classical conditioning?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. B.F. Skinner
c. John Watson
d. Ivan Pavlov
5. ________ is the process by which a neutral stimulus takes on conditioned properties through paring with an already conditioned stimulus.
a. Learned helplessness
b. Extinction
c. Higher-order conditioning
d. Spontaneous recovery
What Are the Key Variables in Classical Conditioning?
6. Every time Matt whistled, he gave his dog food treats. After a while, the dog salivated whenever Matt whistled. Matt then stopped giving his dog the treat after he whistled. Pretty soon, Matt’s dog no longer salivated to his whistle. This illustrates what principle?
a. stimulus generalization
b. extinction
c. learned helplessness
d. spontaneous recovery
7. Four-year-old Brad was bitten by a German Shepard dog. Now when Brad sees any dog, he starts shaking and begins crying. Brad’s shaking and crying when he sees any dog, as opposed to just German Shepard dogs, illustrates what principle?
a. stimulus generalization
b. extinction
c. spontaneous recovery
d. stimulus discrimination
8. In classical conditioning, spontaneous recovery refers to the
a. process of learning to respond to certain stimuli and not to others.
b. weakening of the conditioned response in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus.
c. recurrence of a extinguished response after a delay without further conditioning.
d. initial learning of the stimulus-response link.
9. Stimulus discrimination refers to the
a. process of reducing the probability of a conditioned response.
b. recurrence of an extinguished response following a rest period.
c. occurrence of a conditioned response to a stimulus similar to the conditioned stimulus.
d. process by which an organism learns to respond only to a specific stimulus.
10. What is another name for conditioned taste aversion?
a. Pavlov effect
b. Garcia effect
c. Watson effect
d. Skinner effect
What Type of Learning Is Operant Conditioning?
11. A form of associative learning in which the consequences of a behavior changes the probability of the behavior's future occurrence is known as
a. classical conditioning.
b. counter-conditioning.
c. observational conditioning.
d. operant conditioning.
12. ________ increases the probability of a response through removal of a stimulus, usually an aversive one.
a. Positive reinforcement
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Punishment
d. Extinction
13. Which of the following is a secondary reinforcer?
a. food
b. sex
c. money
d. water
14. With positive punishment, the frequency of the behavior in question does what after what?
a. increases after it is followed by the removal of a pleasant stimulus
b. increases after it is followed by the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus
c. decreases after it is followed by the removal of a pleasant stimulus
d. decreases after it is followed by the presentation of an unpleasant stimulus
15. Tonya taught her dog to play dead. To do this, she first rewarded the dog with a treat for sitting. Next, she required the dog to sit and lay down before giving the treat. Finally, Tonya’s dog was required to sit, lie down, and roll on its back before it was given the treat. This illustrates the principle of
a. shaping.
b. flooding.
c. generalization.
d. discrimination.
What Are the Key Variables in Operant Conditioning?
16. The schedule of reinforcement that produces high rates of responding, without post-reinforcement pauses, and is very resistant to extinction, is the ________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
17. The schedule of reinforcement where reinforcement is given for the first response after a set number of responses, is the ________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
18. The schedule of reinforcement where reinforcement is given for a response emitted in a set amount of time, is the ________ schedule.
a. fixed ratio
b. variable ratio
c. fixed interval
d. variable interval
19. Behavior that is learned through coincidental association with reinforcement is called _________ behavior.
a. unintelligent
b. learned
c. superstitious
d. irrational
20. If a person is consistently offered reinforcement for an otherwise intrinsically motivated behavior, performance is likely to
a. increase dramatically.
b. increase.
c. stay the same.
d. decrease.
Can Learning Occur Through Observation?
21. Learning by watching others is known as what?
a. observational learning
b. associative learning
c. imaginative learning
d. operant conditioning
22. Which process is critical to observational learning?
a. classical conditioning
b. spontaneous recovery
c. modeling
d. extinction
23. What name is most associated with social learning theory and Bobo dolls?
a. Skinner
b. Bandura
c. Maslow
d. Pavlov
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the key processes in observational learning?
a. attention
b. social skills
c. motivation
d. representation/retention
25. Learning that occurs in the absence of direct reinforcement is known as ________ learning.
a. insight
b. cognitive
c. independent
d. latent
What Is the Biological Basis for Learning?
26. Which neurotransmitter seems most important in the experience of reinforcement?
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. dopamine
d. adrenaline
27. The idea that repeated stimulus presentations causes a consolidation of a temporary neural circuit into a permanent one, where stimulation produces changes that extend beyond the point of stimulation and persist after stimulation stops, is called
a. long-term potentiation.
b. dendritic spinal pruning.
c. action potentiation.
d. reverberating circuit.
Chapter 9 Memory
How Does the Memory Process Begin?
1. Organizing sensory information such that the nervous system can process it, is called
a. decoding
b. encoding
c. recoding
d. secret coding
2. The ________ approach posits that the brain manages stimuli in different ways, to different extents, and at different levels.
a. levels-of-processing
b. storage transfer
c. encoding-retrieval
d. information processing
3. Encoding specificity principle holds that the effectiveness of a specific retrieval cue, depends on how
a. intense the original stimulus was at time of encoding.
b. intelligent the person remembering the cue is compared to others.
c. well the cue matches up with the originally encoded information.
d. specific the code is for encoding information.
4. Processing information that is similar for both encoding and retrieval is called ________ processing.
a. encoding
b. retrieval
c. transport-affiliated
d. transfer-appropriate
5. Which of the following areas of the brain is NOT particularly involved in encoding?
a. frontal lobe
b. cerebellum
c. prefrontal cortex
d. temporal lobe
What Are the Types of Memory Storage?
6. The type of memory available only seconds after exposure is known as ________ memory.
a. sensory
b. working
c. long-term
d. long-term
7. Chunking information into meaningful units is a means of getting around limitations of the
a. amount of time available for studying.
b. capacity of sensory memory.
c. capacity of working memory.
d. capacity of long-term memory.
8. The process of simply repeating information over and over to hold it in short-term memory is called ________, while the process of associating it with other information and analyzing its meaning while using repetition is called ________.
a. consolidation, metamemory
b. metamemory, consolidation
c. maintenance rehearsal, elaborative rehearsal
d. elaborative rehearsal, maintenance rehearsal
9. ________ memory is a memory for habits and skills needed to complete tasks, while ________ memory is a memory for specific episodes, ideas, rules and concepts.
a. Procedural; declarative
b. Declarative; procedural
c. Episodic; declarative
d. Semantic; procedural
10. A memory one is not aware of possessing, is called a(n) ________ memory.
a. explicit
b. ambiguous
c. blackout
d. implicit
11. Long-term potentiation is especially evident in this area of the brain which appears to be important in the functioning of working memory.
a. reticular formation
b. hippocampus
c. medulla
d. pons
What Influences Memory Retrieval?
12. A multiple-choice test is an example of
a. recognition.
b. reconstruction.
c. reorganization.
d. recall.
13. According to the idea of state-dependent memory, if you were upset and angry when you studied for a test, you would probably best recall the information if you took the test when you were
a. in a calm, neutral mood.
b. upset and angry.
c. happy and relaxed.
d. anxious and depressed.
14. When asked to remember a long list of words one has just heard, the tendency to better remember items toward the end of the list is called the ________ effect.
a. anterograde
b. retrograde
c. primacy
d. recency
15. Eric remembers vividly where he was, who was with him, and how he felt, at the moment he found out his father had just suffered a severe heart attack. This is an example of a(n) ________ memory.
a. procedural
b. implicit
c. flashbulb
d. semantic
What Causes People to forget?
16. Which of the following names is most associated with research on forgetting?
a. Bandura
b. Baddeley
c. Spearman
d. Ebbinghaus
17. Once you learned French. Now you are learning Spanish. When you have trouble remembering the Spanish words for the first ten numbers, because the French words for the same numbers keep popping into your working memory, this is called ________ interference.
a. proactive
b. retroactive
c. inactive
d. static
18. The accuracy of eyewitness testimony is generally perceived by lay persons to be ________, and research shows it is ________.
a. highly accurate, highly accurate
b. often incorrect, highly accurate
c. highly accurate, often incorrect
d. often incorrect, often incorrect
19. The idea that traumatic events can be buried in the unconscious, is known as what?
a. depression
b. repression
c. projection
d. rejection
20. ________ amnesia is the inability to remember events that occur following brain damage, while ________ amnesia is the inability to remember events prior to a head injury.
a. Anterograde; integrated
b. Integrated; unincorporated
c. Retrograde; integrated
d. Anterograde; retrograde
Chapter 10 Cognitive Psychology
What Is Cognitive Psychology
1. Cognitive psychology is the study of
a. perception
b. memory
c. thought processes
d. all of the above
How Do We Form Concepts and Solve Problems?
2. Mental representations of categories of objects or events are called
a. sensations.
b. concepts.
c. feelings.
d. responses.
3. You have to study four chapters of information for your next test. If you decide to use the problem solving strategy of subgoaling, which of the following would you do?
a. skim the chapters the night before the test
b. just go to class and study the notes the night before the test
c. break the topics into smaller areas and focus on each in an organized sequence
d. just attend the class regularly and figure that most everything will be covered there
4. Which of the following problem solving procedures involves repetitively implementing a set of rules until a solution is found?
a. heuristic
b. prototype
c. backward search
d. algorithm
5. Realizing a hammer could also be used to prop open a window, is avoiding the problem of
a. divergent thinking.
b. convergent thinking.
c. functional fixedness.
d. brainstorming.
How Do We Reason and Make Decisions?
6. Joan believes that if she hasn’t found coins in a drink machine change slot recently, that she is more likely to find them soon. This illustrates which decision making barrier?
a. fundamental attribution error
b. confirmation bias
c. gambler’s fallacy
d. availability heuristic
7. A recent set of news stories about two plane crashes that occurred a week apart, led Moe to believe that it air travel is more dangerous now. This illustrates which decision making barrier?
a. under-confidence phenomenon
b. availability heuristic
c. belief perseverance
d. confirmation bias
8. Belief in small numbers is the willingness to
a. draw conclusions from a representative sample.
b. enjoy smaller winnings because bigger ones seem impossible.
c. draw conclusions from a tiny, unrepresentative sample.
d. believe that fractions of single digits are, in fact, real.
9. Trish believes men are terrible drivers. When she sees someone driving very courteously, and then realizes it is a man, she discounts this as an exception to her rule. This exemplifies the
a. availability heuristic.
b. confirmation bias.
c. cognitive bias set.
d. overconfidence phenomenon.
What Does Artificial Intelligence Reveal About Cognition?
10. Artificial intelligence is
a. that which is likely to be found in extraterrestrials.
b. an attempt to make computers behave like humans.
c. the memory and processing systems found in computers.
d. the pseudo-intellectualism found in many would-be academic types.
11. The ________ approach is the notion that human memory is a three-stage storage system.
a. transfer-appropriate
b. semantic-episodic
c. memory-perseverance
d. information-processing
12. The idea that many operations take place simultaneously at many locations in the brain, is the concept of ________ processing.
a. parallel distributed
b. horizontally dispersed
c. vertically allocated
d. information
13. According to Damasio, a(n) ________ zone (or center) mediates and organizes information from various brain locations.
a. divergence
b. convergence
c. discrepancy
d. union
What Is the Structure of Language?
14. This is the study of how social context affects the meaning of words.
a. psycholinguistics
b. pragmatics
c. phonology
d. linguistics
15. This is the study of how language is acquired, perceived, understood and produced.
a. psycholinguistics
b. pragmatics
c. phonology
d. linguistics
16. The basic unit of sound that combines with others to compose words in a language is the ________, while the basic unit of meaning in language is the ________.
a. morpheme; dipheme
b. dipheme; phoneme
c. audeme; dipheme
d. phoneme; morpheme
17. What is the term for condensed forms of speech used by young children, which consists almost entirely of nouns and/or verbs arranged in an order that makes sense?
a. syntax speech
b. homophonic speech
c. telegraphic speech
d. abbreviated grammar
18. At about what age would you typically expect a child to have a vocabulary of over 850 words?
a. 16 weeks
b. 8 months
c. 16 months
d. 36 months
19. ________ is the linguistic description of how a language functions, especially with regard to rules and patterns for generating appropriate sentences.
a. Semantics
b. Syntax
c. Grammar
d. Linguism
How Do We Acquire Language?
20. If a patient has suffered damage to the left hemisphere, it is most likely s/he will have difficulties involving
a. recognizing musical melodies.
b. posture, balance, and coordination.
c. sleep and alertness.
d. speech and language.
21. Miller and Chomsky advocate that people are born with the ability to process and facilitate the learning of language via the
a. language acquisition device.
b. language learning gene.
c. language-specific neurotransmitter.
d. human understanding mechanism.
22. Which of the following have chimpanzees NOT been able to accomplish in terms of language use?
a. learning American Sign Language
b. transmitting sign language culturally from ape to ape
c. interacting with a computer to demonstrate rudimentary language
d. learning to make compound sentences with a small vocabulary
Chapter 11 Intelligence
What Are the Origins and History of Psychological Testing?
1. The motivation behind the French Ministry of Education's use of Binet's tests was to
a. identify low-ability schoolchildren and get them alternative instruction.
b. evaluate cognitive abilities of adults for vocational training.
c. identify high-ability schoolchildren who would benefit by advanced classes.
d. divide up school children to reduce overcrowding.
2. What is the term for the age at which children of average ability are able to perform various intelligence tasks?
a. chronological age
b. intelligence quotient
c. mental age
d. Stanford-Binet quotient
3. The intelligence quotient (IQ) was calculated by which of the following?
a. mental age multiplied by chronological age (MA x CA)
b. mental age divided by chronological age and multiplied by 100 ((MA/CA) x 100))
c. chronological age divided by itself and multiplied by 100 ((CA/CA) x 100))
d. chronological age over mental age (CA/MA)
4. Which of the following is NOT a typical subtest of the Wechsler’s Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)?
a. information
b. trivia knowledge
c. similarities
d. picture arrangement
5. The Army ________ and ________ tests were used to assess intelligence in group settings in World War I.
a. Alpha; Omega
b. Beta; Kappa
c. Psi; Chi
d. Alpha; Beta
What Is Intelligence?
6. What is the name of the statistical procedure designed to identify independent elements in any data set?
a. correlation coefficient
b. t-test
c. factor analysis
d. analysis of variance
7. Vygotsky suggested that ________ was necessary for children to understand their world and that its eventual internalization was needed for cognitive development.
a. public speech
b. private speech
c. baby talk
d. mimicry
8. Which of the following is most associated with the idea of multiple intelligences?
a. Gardner
b. Binet
c. Stanford
d. Skinner
9. Which of the following is NOT part of Sternberg’s Theory of Successful Intelligence?
a. analytic dimension
b. naturalistic dimension
c. practical dimension
d. creative dimension
10. Salovey, Mayer, and Goleman posited that ________ intelligence was an important of leadership, motivation, and “people skills.”
a. investigative
b. verbal
c. analytical
d. emotional
How Do Psychologists Develop Tests?
11. A test designed to measure one’s ability to learn specific types of material is called what?
a. achievement test
b. standardized test
c. aptitude test
d. t-test
12. ________ is the process of developing uniform procedures for administering and scoring a test and for establishing norms to which individual scores can be compared.
a. Standardization
b. Representation
c. Normal curving
d. Reliability checking
13. A percentile score indicates what about the test taker relative to others who took the test?
a. the percentage of the population scoring above the individual
b. the percentage of the population scoring below the individual
c. the percentage of the population scoring the same as the individual
d. the percentage of the population who also took the same test
14. The quality of a measure by which yields similar scores for the same individuals over repeated testing is called ________, while the quality by which a measure actually assesses what it is supposed to measure is called ________.
a. standardization; representation
b. validity; standardization
c. representation; reliability
d. reliability; validity
15. The halo effect is the tendency for
a. a noticeable characteristic to influence the way other characteristics are evaluated.
b. people who are really good to be rewarded by others for their positive and desirable qualities.
c. people who are not very intelligent to increase their intelligence by intensive study.
d. minorities to fear that their performance will confirm negative stereotypes about their group.
16. The ________ is a situation where one’s personal expectations unintentionally affect others’ behavior so as to confirm one’s expectations.
a. fortune telling phenomenon
b. stereotype threat
c. predictive validity tendency
d. self-fulfilling prophesy
How Do Biological and Environmental Factors Contribute to Intelligence?
17. The genetically determined proportion of a trait’s variation among individuals in a population is called what?
a. genetic drift
b. standard norm
c. heritability
d. nature-nurture ratio
18. Which group has the highest correlation between IQ scores?
a. unrelated persons, reared together
b. parents and children living together
c. brothers and sisters, reared apart
d. identical twins, reared together
19. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Cross-cultural differences in IQ and SAT scores are growing larger.
b. Cross-cultural differences in IQ and SAT scores consistently remain the same.
c. Cross-cultural differences in IQ and SAT scores are narrowing.
d. Cross-cultural differences in IQ and SAT scores have never existed.
20. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Females score a great deal lower than males on IQ tests.
b. Males score a great deal lower than females on IQ tests.
c. There are absolutely no gender differences whatsoever in IQ subtest scores.
d. There are only small gender differences on verbal and math tasks.
What Is the Impact of Having Exceptional IQ?
21. In the American educational system, those with advanced intellectual abilities are said to be
a. privileged.
b. gifted.
c. rare.
d. misunderstood.
22. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of mental retardation?
a. an IQ score below a set criteria
b. problems with functioning and/or difficulty adapting to everyday life
c. onset of relevant problems before age 18
d. all of the above
23. Which of the following is NOT one of the types of support for persons with intellectual disabilities listed in the text?
a. random
b. limited
c. extensive
d. pervasive
24. For what does the acronym IDEA stand?
a. Independent District Education Association
b. Intervention Distribution and Education Alliance
c. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
d. Instrumental Developmental Education Agreement
25. ________ is the integration of children with special needs into regular classroom settings.
a. Exclusion
b. Inclusion
c. Desegregation
d. Unification
Chapter 12 Motivation and Emotion
What Is Motivation?
1. A state of physiological balance is called
a. arousal.
b. motivation.
c. achievement.
d. homeostasis.
2. A(n) ________ is an internal state of arousal that directs an organism to satisfy a need.
a. drive
b. instinct
c. need
d. motivation
3. You want to go to the opening of a movie at eight, but a group of friends wants to meet at a restaurant then. You want to do both, but can only choose one. What type of conflict it this?
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-avoidance
c. avoidance-approach
d. approach-approach
4. The Yerkes-Dodson principle predicts a person will demonstrate the best performance on most tasks when their level of arousal is
a. low.
b. moderate.
c. high.
d. rapidly changing.
5. An expectancy theory of motivation focuses on a person’s
a. intrinsic level of nervous system activation.
b. basic emotional patterns and how they function.
c. desire to become a complete, well-rounded person.
d. beliefs about what behavior will help them reach a goal.
6. Which of these is the best example of an extrinsic motivation?
a. the taste of your favorite food when you are hungry
b. the pleasure you get from listening to music you choose
c. the satisfaction of filling in every blank on a crossword
d. the paycheck your employer gives you every week
7. The decrease in likelihood that an originally intrinsically motivated task will be done after it’s extrinsically rewarded and the reward is then withdrawn, is called what?
a. self-actualization
b. over-justification effect
c. Hawthorne effect
d. glucostatic regulation
8. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is best summed up in which way?
a. we have belonging and esteem needs, but must satisfy physiological and safety needs first
b. many people realize self-actualization without ever satisfying physiological and safety needs
c. we satisfy esteem needs first, then love, then safety, then physiological needs last
d. needs are something that are culturally relative, and every culture has very different needs
How Does Motivation Affect Behavior?
9. Which of the following is NOT one of the contributing factors of American obesity listed in the text?
a. food is readily available all the time, almost everywhere
b. most people do not have a desire to be thinner
c. most children and adults do not exercise regularly
d. restaurant portion sizes are growing bigger
10. Which is the correct order of phases in the human sexual response?
a. plateau, excitement, resolution, orgasm
b. excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
c. resolution, excitement, plateau, orgasm
d. excitement, resolution, orgasm, plateau
11. A high need for ________ directs a person to strive for excellence and success, while a high need for ________ motivates a person to establish and maintain positive relationships.
a. efficacy; achievement
b. affiliation; support
c. support; efficacy
d. achievement; affiliation
What Is Emotion?
12. Display rules determine
a. when and where we typically express emotions.
b. the intensity of the emotion we experience.
c. the specific type of emotion we feel.
d. how often we experience a particular emotion.
13. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, what should happen if you smile consistently?
a. you will feel sad
b. you will feel angry
c. you will feel happy
d. you will feel no different than before
14. The Cannon-Bard theory predicts that as one sees an oncoming threat, a person will
a. experience physiological arousal and then feel fear.
b. feel fear and then will experience physiological arousal.
c. experience a cathartic scream as a release of anxiety, then run away from the scene.
d. experience physiological arousal and the feeling of fear at the same time.
15. Using a confederate, Schachter and Singer tested a theory of emotion by injecting a subject with epinephrine (adrenaline) and seeing how the confederate’s behavior influenced the suject. What were the results?
a. uninformed subjects' cognitive interpretations of their arousal was unaltered by the confederate
b. uninformed subjects' cognitive interpretations of their arousal was biased by the confederate
c. cognitive interpretations of the arousal were always attributed to the epinephrine
d. considerable support was found for the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion
16. Which of the following physiological responses is NOT monitored by the polygraph?
a. heart rate
b. breathing
c. pupil dilation
d. galvanic skin response
How Does Emotion Affect Behavior?
17. The relationship between positive emotions and life satisfaction was found to be
a. stronger in individualist versus collectivist cultures.
b. stronger in collectivist versus individualist cultures.
c. strong in both collectivist and individualist cultures.
d. weak in both collectivist and individualist cultures.
18. Display rules for emotionality in many Western cultures hold that
a. women can be more emotional.
b. men can be more emotional.
c. neither males nor females can be very emotional.
d. both males and females can be very emotional.
19. Tice’s research implies that emotional reactions are
a. beyond people’s control.
b. essentially under people’s control.
c. far more common among successful people.
d. less common in those who in emotional distress.
Chapter 13 Personality and Its Assessment
What Is Personality?
1. What is personality?
a. a relatively permanent pattern of traits that give consistency to an individual’s behavior
b. a permanent pattern of rigid behavioral adherence to a set of principles and ethical beliefs
c. a changing pattern of traits that occasional coalesce, but are usually inconsistent in practice
d. an easily defined construct that most researchers agree on precisely as to its meaning
What is the Psychodynamic Approach to Personality?
2. According to Freud, whatever you are thinking about at this moment is in your
a. unconscious mind.
b. preconscious mind.
c. subconscious mind.
d. conscious mind.
3. Which of Freud’s personality structures operates on the pleasure principle and is the source of instinctual energy?
a. Pseudo-ego
b. Ego
c. Id
d. Superego
4. In which of Freud’s psychosexual stages of development would you find a key conflict to be a child’s learning to respond to parental demands, such as those imposed by toilet training?
a. oral
b. anal
c. phallic
d. latency
5. Which defense mechanism involves redirecting our instinctual sex and aggression urges into socially acceptable behaviors?
a. sublimation
b. regression
c. denial
d. reaction formation
6. When we attribute our own undesirable traits to otters, we are using which defense mechanism?
a. repression
b. replacement
c. reaction formation
d. projection
7. Adler’s idea that people have a universal drive to endeavor for personal gain or psychological health, is called what?
a. inferiority suppression
b. instinctual aggression
c. striving for superiority
d. overcompensation
8. The shared memory of the human race from which archetypes arise, is called the
a. personal unconscious.
b. collective unconscious.
c. instructional unconscious.
d. insensible catalepsy.
Can Personality Be Learned?
9. According to Skinner, an individual's personality is the result of
a. conditioning and learning.
b. one’s chronological age.
c. unconscious influences.
d. genetic predispositions.
10. With which personality theory does the behavioral approach conflict?
a. psychodynamic
b. trait
c. humanistic
d. all of the above
What Are Trait and Type Theories of Personality?
11. From Allport’s viewpoint, the total commitment of Martin Luther King, Jr. and Gandhi to pacifism, or that of Mother Teresa to compassion for others, exemplify the notion of a
a. secondary trait.
b. central trait.
c. cardinal trait.
d. peripheral trait.
12. Which personality theorist believed that personality could be summed up in the three bipolar dimensions of extraversion-introversion, neuroticism-emotional stability, and psychoticism-superego function?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Gordon Allport
c. Hans Eysenck
d. Abraham Maslow
13. What are the 5 main traits in the 5-factor model of personality of McCrae & Costa?
a. Forthrightness; Observationalism; Honesty; Agreeableness; Openness
b. Openness; Conscientiousness; Extraversion; Agreeableness; Neuroticism
c. Extraversion; Aggressiveness; Happiness; Forthrightness; Handedness
d. Neuroticism; Understanding; Intelligence; Emotionality; Honesty
What Characterizes the Humanistic Approach to Personality?
14. Self-actualization is a term used by Maslow to refer to a state in which people
a. have realized their self-concept.
b. have overcome a period of mental illness.
c. have an inner-directed need to reach their full potential.
d. are highly motivated to achieve physiological or safety needs.
15. Giving complete emotional support and approval to someone no matter what, corresponds most closely with which of Carl Rogers' principles?
a. unconditional positive regard
b. hierarchy of human needs
c. ideal self
d. genuineness
16. A phenomenological approach assumes that people have
a. a universal experience of understanding people and things in the world.
b. no frame of reference in which they can reliably interpret worldly events.
c. unique experiences and manners of interpreting the world around them.
d. daily phenomena that make living an easy life a difficult thing to do.
17. The humanistic approach which focuses on hopeful and agreeable aspects of the human race is called ________ psychology.
a. youthful
b. positive
c. unconditional
d. optimistic
What Is the Cognitive Approach to Personality?
18. Kelley posited that people work toward building an understanding of the world which he termed
a. personality structures.
b. ego ideals.
c. cognitive concepts.
d. personal constructs.
19. Jeanette believes she is primarily responsible for what happens in her life, and that her efforts determine what opportunities come her way and how they turn out. She has a(n) ________ locus of control.
a. external
b. internal
c. neutral
d. individual
20. Bandura’s notion that people have situation specific beliefs about their ability to effectively perform behaviors that will lead to success is known as
a. reciprocal determination.
b. projection formation.
c. self efficacy.
d. goal evaluation.
21. Which of the following personality perspectives is associated with Walter Mischel?
a. cognitive-affective
b. cognitive-behavioral
c. affective-behavioral
d. psychodynamic
How Do Psychologists Assess Personality?
22. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is best described as
a. an objective personality assessment measure.
b. a projective personality assessment measure.
c. an intelligence quotient assessment measure.
d. a structured clinical interview for behavioral assessment.
23. The chief criticism with projective personality tests (as compared to objective tests) is that they
a. do not produce a body of interesting and rich data to interpret.
b. have questionable reliability and validity.
c. are susceptible to social desirability.
d. have an over-reliance on empirical criteria.
24. Of the following, which is the most widely used objective personality measure?
a. Rorschach Inkblot Test (RIT).
b. Eysenck’s 3-Factor Personality Test (E-3FT).
c. Rotter Incomplete Sentence Test (RIST).
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).
25. In what way are personality tests used?
a. in assessment for career counseling
b. in the diagnosis of psychopathology
c. in the research of personality
d. all of the above
Chapter 14 Social Psychology
What Is the Social Self?
1. Moe wants to be seen as an intellectual. To this end, he wears glasses instead of contacts, has a pocket protector in which to put his pens, and he smokes a pipe. Moe’s efforts are best described as
a. obedience training.
b. social comparison.
c. self-presentation.
d. social conformity.
2. Attributions that place the cause of someone’s behavior inside that person are ________ attributions, while those that place the cause outside the person are ________.
a. internal; external
b. primary; secondary
c. conditioned; unconditioned
d. pro-social; antisocial
3. Suppose you see a father grab his child and scold him sharply. If you decide the father has done this because he has poor control over his temper, you have made a(n) ________ attribution.
a. external
b. internal
c. primary
d. secondary
4. Its raining and you see a car with active kids in the back seat, and that car then bumps into the car in front of it at a stoplight. According to the fundamental attribution error, what attribution are you most likely to make about the driver of the car which bumps into the other?
a. The brakes on the car weren’t working properly.
b. A child in the second car distracted the driver.
c. The road was too slippery for the driver to stop in time.
d. The driver doesn’t pay attention while driving.
5. Our tendency to take credit for our successes, but to give away blame for our failures is called the
a. actor-observer effect.
b. fundamental attribution error.
c. self-serving bias.
d. social facilitation effect.
How Are Attitudes Related to Behavior?
6. Which of the following exemplifies the three main components of attitudes?
a. affective, behavioral and cognitive
b. unconscious, implicit, accessible
c. evaluative, conscious, well-formed
d. logical, unified, independent
7. According to self-perception theory, our attitudes come primarily from our interpretations of our
a. experiences with authority figures.
b. own behaviors.
c. belief systems.
d. cognitive dissonance.
8. Cognitive dissonance occurs when there are inconsistencies between
a. our thoughts and our feelings.
b. our sensations and perceptions.
c. our attitudes and our behavior.
d. our self-concept and our concept of others.
9. With the elaboration likelihood model, the ______________ route engages someone thoughtfully, while the ____________ route involves unimportant message factors.
a. primary, secondary
b. peripheral, central
c. central, secondary
d. central, peripheral
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the key components of effective persuasion listed in the text?
a. the source
b. the audience
c. the accuracy
d. the medium
How Do People Relate to Each Other?
11. Interpersonal attraction is affected by which variable?
a. proximity
b. physical attractiveness
c. similarity
d. all of the above
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the 6 varieties of love listed in the text?
a. passionate
b. authority
c. selfless
d. logical
13. The quality of a relationship which leads one to self-disclose important personal information to the other person, is called
a. intimacy.
b. bonding.
c. imprudence.
d. passion.
14. The idea that people maintain a balance in their relative contributions to relationships is called
a. social theory.
b. equity theory.
c. proximal theory.
d. humanistic theory.
15. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about gender differences in aggression?
a. No matter what type of aggression, men are naturally more aggressive than women.
b. Virtually all women choose not to engage in physical aggression.
c. Men display more physical aggression than women.
d. Women are at least as physically aggressive as men.
16. Allison collects aluminum cans on her college campus. She sells them to a recycling center and gives the proceeds to the Salvation Army. Allison is displaying
a. reciprocity.
b. exchange theory.
c. socialism.
d. altruism.
17. The idea that the more people there are standing around in an emergency, the less likely any one person is to help, is called the
a. bystander effect.
b. social loafing effect.
c. the fundamental attribution error.
d. groupthink effect.
What Are the Effects of Identifying with a Group?
18. Suppose you are a pretty good guitarist. One day while practicing at your apartment, a group of your roommate’s friends gather around and listen to you play. Although a bit nervous, you play extremely well. This scenario is an example of:
a. social stimulation.
b. groupthink.
c. social facilitation.
d. group polarization.
19. Terry became annoyed about a group project when he knew the other members of the group were not working as hard as they would have if they were working alone. This problem is called
a. avoidant behavior.
b. diffusion of responsibility.
c. social facilitation.
d. social loafing.
20. Because everyone in Katrita’s neighborhood association are such good friends, no one wanted to argue when someone suggested planting large, fast-growing bushes all along the road, so they wound up doing it even though it predictably turned out to be a bad idea. This is an example of
a. social loafing.
b. groupthink.
c. cognitive dissonance.
d. group polarization.
21. Deindividuation refers to
a. a schizophrenic personality where one splits their personality from their core sense of self.
b. a purely Freudian point of view, with a suppression of selfish needs for the good of society.
c. feelings of anonymity and reduced responsibility that result from immersion in a crowd.
d. willful and conscious disobedience of one's own rules of conduct.
22. The fifth-grade teacher was surprised when her Japanese-American student, Takashi, performed poorly on a math test. The teacher's reaction was due to the teacher’s
a. discrimination.
b. prejudice.
c. stereotypes.
d. ingrouping tendency.
How Do Others Affect the Individual?
23. Natasha has a bad back and prefers sitting on straight-back chairs, but since everyone else at a party was sitting on the floor, she got down on the floor as well. She was demonstrating
a. obedience.
b. pro-social behavior.
c. social facilitation.
d. conformity.
24. In Milgram’s first study of obedience conducted at Yale University, how did people respond when asked to deliver enormous, obviously dangerous electrical shocks to strangers?
a. About two-thirds of the people obeyed the orders.
b. Almost everyone refused to obey.
c. Those who obeyed were found to be psychologically unstable.
d. There was no way to get people to refuse the orders.
25. Milgram's study demonstrated that many people obey negative orders when they are
a. cruel and inhumane people to begin with.
b. directed by a credible authority figure.
c. paid well enough not to care.
d. tired and hungry.
Chapter 15 Stress and Health Psychology
What Is Stress?
1. A(n) ________ is a stimulus that affects an organism in a negative physical and/or psychological fashion.
a. resistance
b. stressor
c. maladaptation
d. alarm stage
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome?
a. alarm
b. adjustment
c. exhaustion
d. resistance
3. A person’s active evaluation and negotiation of a situation and his or her own ability to deal effectively with it is called
a. stress.
b. anxiety.
c. cognitive appraisal.
d. physiological arousal.
4. Uri was in a terrible car accident where he could have easily been killed. He now has vivid and intrusive recollections of that experience and has related sleep problems as well. Uri may well have
a. posttraumatic stress disorder.
b. borderline personality disorder.
c. generalized anxiety disorder.
d. panic disorder.
5. Which of the following hormones is most related to the experience of stress?
a. estrogen
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. lymph
6. Jodie rushed into her stress management class five minutes late, sorted her mail and wrote memos to herself during the class, and complained when it was over that it had been a waste of time as she rushed off to her next meeting. Jodie demonstrates a pattern of behavior that is generally labeled as
a. Type A.
b. Type B.
c. Type C.
d. conflicted.
7. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Stress does not affect the immune system at all.
b. Stress dominates the immune system
c. Stress has some positive affects on the immune system.
d. Stress has some negative affects on the immune system.
How Do People Cope with Stress?
8. ________ is the extent to which people are flexible and able to respond adaptively to demands.
a. Burnout
b. Resilience
c. Toughness
d. Healthiness
9. Tina talks to her friends about how she feels whenever she’s stressed. This works for her and she doesn’t seem to need to do anything else. Tina’s is a(n) ________ coping strategy.
a. proactive
b. no-nonsense
c. emotion-focused
d. problem-focused
10. If you teach people to cope with a particular stressful situation by allowing them to practice in realistic scenarios similar to those they are going to face, this is using the technique of
a. stress inoculation.
b. distress deterrence.
c. passive coping.
d. follow-through practice.
What Is Health Psychology?
11. ________ psychology is chiefly concerned with using psychological principles to prevent illness, treat disease, and improve rehabilitation.
a. Rehab
b. Biological
c. Environmental
d. Health
12. The optimistic bias is when people mistakenly think that
a. they are going to be successful at whatever they do.
b. self-destructive behaviors will not affect them.
c. they have very little to worry about in life.
d. they have way too much to worry about in life.
13. What group is most likely to seek medical help?
a. those who are highly religious
b. non-professionals
c. women
d. men
14. Overall, about what percentage of people fail in some way to follow medical advice they receive?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 80%
15. Which of the following is NOT one of the three forms of severe and disabling pain listed in the text?
a. progressive
b. regressive
c. periodic
d. chronic
16. Geller and colleagues determined what about college alcohol use?
a. Drinking is heavier at fraternity parties than other types of parties.
b. Designated drivers are not necessarily entirely sober.
c. Students offered rewards for drinking less may well do so.
d. all of the above
17. What is the best means of preventing HIV infection and other sexually transmitted diseases among sexually active people?
a. consistent condom use
b. withdrawal method
c. consistent birth control pill use
d. limiting sex to several partners
Chapter 16 Psychological Disorders
What Is Abnormal Behavior?
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of abnormal behavior?
a. personal distress
b. maladaptive behavior
c. deviance from societal norms
d. all of the above
2. To classify psychological disorders in the United States, the American Psychiatric Association developed the
a. Mental Measurement Yearbook, 5th Edition.
b. Psychiatric Dictionary of Problematic Behaviors, Cognitions, and Emotions, 3rd Edition.
c. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision.
d. International Classification of Diseases, 9th Edition.
3. What is the term denoting the percentage of a population displaying a disorder during any specified period?
a. prevalence
b. frequency
c. spread velocity
d. rate of recurrence
4. How many axes are included in the DSM-IV-TR?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
5. Which of the following disorders has been found only in Western societies?
a. depression
b. bulimia
c. anxiety
d. anorexia
What Are Anxiety Disorders?
6. Brad seems to be in a continuous state of anxiety though he is unable to identify the source of his feelings. Brad is most likely suffering from
a. generalized anxiety disorder.
b. specific phobia.
c. panic disorder.
d. dysthymia.
7. Lynn does not like dogs. She has an unreasonable fear that if she gets too close to any dog, it will bite her or worse. Which of the following anxiety disorders would best explain this?
a. conflicting goal disorder
b. post-traumatic stress disorder
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. phobic disorder
8. Agoraphobia is characterized by a marked fear and avoidance of
a. any types of stimuli that remind one of a previously experienced traumatic situation.
b. people who either ridicule one or do not understand or care about one’s anxieties.
c. being alone or in a place from which escape would be difficult or embarrassing.
d. use of medications which might otherwise be helpful in the treatment process.
9. Which disorder consists of the performance of rituals that reduce tension and anxiety?
a. somatoform disorder
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. thanatophobic disorder
10. Which approach to therapy is usually best for ridding people of specific phobias?
a. psychoanalysis
b. client-centered therapy
c. biological therapy
d. behavior therapy
What Are Mood Disorders?
11. A belief that is held despite obvious evidence to the contrary is called a(n)
a. delusion.
b. catatonia.
c. hallucination.
d. conditioned response.
12. Depression is most associated with which neurotransmitter?
a. GABA
b. cortisol
c. serotonin
d. androgen
13. Learned helplessness is most likely to happen when punishment is given
a. frequently, but where a person feels they have a good deal of control over the situations.
b. frequently, but where a person feels they have no control over the situations.
c. infrequently, but consistently and with explanations for the punishment.
d. infrequently, but when the punishment is not excessive and is expected.
14. The diathesis-stress model of disorders posits that people have
a. no existing predispositions for a disorder, but that environmental stressors cause them.
b. predispositions for developing disorders, but that environmental stressors trigger them.
c. a chance of being cured of a disorder if they are able to analyze their stresses and coping styles.
d. very little understanding of the causes of disorders (thesis), but they do understand stress.
15. Jarrod goes through periods of deep depression followed by periods in which he is excessively energetic, euphoric, and unrealistically optimistic. Jarrod is probably suffering from
a. dissociation.
b. schizophrenia.
c. major depression.
d. bipolar disorder.
What Are Dissociative Disorders?
16. Dissociative disorders can be characterized by a sudden, temporary alterations of all of the following EXCEPT
a. consciousness.
b. blood pressure.
c. identity.
d. memory.
17. The disorder characterized by a sudden and extensive inability to recall important personal information is called dissociative
a. amnesia.
b. parathesia.
c. repression.
d. regression.
18. Dissociative identity disorder is also known as
a. multiple personality disorder.
b. depersonalization.
c. dissociative fugue.
d. derealization.
What Is Schizophrenia?
19. A person is said to be ________ when s/he suffers from a gross impairment in reality testing such that s/he is unable to meet the ordinary demands of life.
a. neurotic
b. psychotic
c. phobic
d. fixated
20. What is the most common type of hallucination experienced in schizophrenia?
a. visual
b. tactile
c. auditory
d. olfactory
21. The schizophrenia type characterized most by delusions of persecution and/or grandeur, and possibly hallucinations, is the ________ type.
a. undifferentiated
b. residual
c. catatonic
d. paranoid
What Are Personality Disorders?
22. Chronic, inflexible, maladaptive cognitive-behavioral patterns that typically cause distress and problems are callled
a. neurotic disorders.
b. psychotic disorders.
c. adjustment disorders.
d. personality disorders.
23. Which of the following is NOT a class of personality disorders listed in the text?
a. odd or eccentric
b. silly or immature
c. dramatic, emotional, and impulsive
d. fearful or anxious
24. John has committed many crimes and does not care that he has violated the rights of others in the process. He lacks guilt and is unable to understand how others feel when confronted with his irresponsible behavior. This example best fits a diagnosis of ________ personality disorder.
a. schizoid
b. paranoid
c. antisocial
d. borderline
25. Carrie seeks attention by exaggeration. She has dramatic relationships with most people she knows, needs excessive admiration, and manipulates others. Additionally, she doesn’t handle criticism well. This example best fits a diagnosis of ________ personality disorder.
a. histrionic
b. dramatic
c. narcissistic
d. dependent
How Are Violence and Mental Disorders Related?
26. Insanity is a term that is most closely associated with which domain?
a. cognitive
b. legal
c. psychodymanic
d. interactionist
27. Which of the following ideas about suicide is a myth?
a. Suicide happens without warning.
b. Once a person becomes suicidal, they remain that way.
c. People who attempt suicide fully intend to die.
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following is true?
a. Intimate partner abuse is common throughout the world.
b. Rape is more often committed by an acquaintance than a stranger.
c. Perpetrators of child abuse and rape are not more likely to have a mental disorder.
d. all of the above
Chapter 17 Therapy
What Is Psychotherapy, and What Types Are Available?
1. A change in a person due solely to that person’s expectation about what should happen, without regard to any actual effect of a therapeutic technique is a result of the
a. cognitive confusion effect.
b. misinformation effect.
c. self-serving bias.
d. placebo effect.
2. In research, a procedure where neither the participant nor the experimenter know who is in the control group nor who is in the experimental group, is called the ________ technique.
a. venetian blind
b. single-blind
c. double-blind
d. triple-blind
3. Based on the most current research, psychotherapy is
a. effective overall.
b. not very effective.
c. effective only for those with phobias.
d. effective only for those with schizophrenia.
4. Which of the following factors is an element common to all therapy types with regard to treatment effectiveness?
a. cost of the therapy
b. empathy of the therapist
c. age of the therapist
d. location of the therapy sessions
5. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Psychologists strive to have respect for multiculturalism.
b. Cultural factors are often relevant in therapy.
c. Women seek out therapy more often than men.
d. all of the above
6. What effect has managed care generally had on the provision of therapy?
a. it has made therapy of longer duration
b. it has made therapy of shorter duration
c. it has made the therapist charge more for services
d. it has made therapy much less effective and harder to get
How Do Psychodynamic Therapies Work?
7. The main goal of psychodynamic therapy is to explore and analyze the client's
a. irrational thinking.
b. lack of self-actualization.
c. early experiences.
d. ideal self.
8. When a person gives the therapist an open account of their feelings, thoughts, and/or emotions as they occur, regardless of the content, this is the technique of:
a. personal interpretation
b. dream interpretation
c. loose association
d. free association
9. When the therapist becomes the substitute object of a patient’s emotional attitudes toward an important person in their life, this is known as
a. transference.
b. trajection.
c. conflict of affect.
d. overcoming resistance.
10. “Working through” includes which of the following elements?
a. transference
b. interpretation
c. resistance to interpretation
d. all of the above
What Do Humanistic Therapies Emphasize?
11. Carl Rogers is most associated with which therapy?
a. psychoanalysis
b. behavioral
c. client-centered
d. rational-emotive
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the three essential characteristics of successful client-centered therapy listed in the text?
a. unconditional positive regard
b. exploration of the unconscious
c. congruence
d. empathy
13. An important difference between humanistic therapies and psychoanalytic therapies is that humanistic therapies emphasize the
a. environmental reinforcers that control behavior.
b. uniqueness, creativity, and free will of the clients.
c. importance of achieving insight into one’s problems.
d. control of behavior by hidden, unconscious conflicts.
What Are the Methods of Behavior Therapy?
14. A basic assumption underlying behavior therapy is that psychological disorders are the result of
a. faulty learning.
b. low self-esteem.
c. unresolved unconscious conflict.
d. failure to achieve self-actualization.
15. When a symptom has been eliminated through therapy, but another symptom appears to take its place, it is referred to as symptom
a. realignment.
b. restructuring.
c. substitution.
d. dissociation.
16. Which of the following is NOT a case of applying operant principles in therapy?
a. extinction
b. time out
c. transference
d. token economies
17. Giorgio’s therapist taught him to relax and has him imagine approaching his most feared situation in increasing degrees of intensity, while still relaxed. The therapist is treating Giorgio’s fear by using
a. unconditional positive regard.
b. free association.
c. cognitive restructuring.
d. systematic desensitization.
Why Is Cognitive Therapy So Popular?
18. Changing a patient’s irrational beliefs and unrealistic expectations is primarily the task of a ________ therapist.
a. cognitive
b. Gestalt
c. client-centered
d. behavioral
19. Helping clients make connections between their patterns of thinking and their feelings is the key in which type of therapy that is associated with Albert Ellis?
a. family systems therapy
b. rational-emotive therapy
c. self-instructional methods
d. cognitive engineering therapy
20. Which cognitive therapist is most associated with the idea that depression is caused by distorted thoughts that lead to negative views about the self, the world, and the future?
a. Carl Rogers
b. B.F. Skinner
c. Aaron Beck
d. Abraham Maslow
How Does Therapy in a Group Work?
21. About how many clients are typically included in group therapy sessions?
a. 2 to 3
b. 6 to 12
c. 15 to 25
d. more than 30
22. Which of the following types of therapy would include couples, their children, and/or their extended families, in an effort to assess and change related systems?
a. group
b. family
c. dynamic
d. humanistic
How Do Psychologists Reach Out to Communities?
23. _________ psychology focuses on reaching out to the public by providing services to effect social change.
a. Positive
b. Empowerment
c. Family-systems
d. Community
24. When the focus of an intervention is to identify new cases of a mental health problem in its early stages, this is called ________ prevention.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. quadraphonic
How Do Biologically Based Therapies Create Change?
25. Which of the following is the most common form of biological therapy?
a. electroconvulsive therapy
b. psychosurgery
c. drug therapy
d. brainwashing
26. SSRI drugs such as Zoloft, Prozac, and Paxil, most affect which neurotransmitter?
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. norepinephrine
d. ephinephrine
27. Which drug is most often used as a treatment for mania in bipolar disorder?
a. benzodiazepine
b. phenotiazine
c. monoamine oxidase inhibitor
d. lithium carbonate
28. What problem can arise from taking antipsychotic drugs for too long?
a. symptom surge
b. tardive dyskinesia
c. epileptic seizure
d. memory loss
29. Which of the following is an example of psychosurgery?
a. electroconvulsive therapy
b. systematic desensitization
c. anxiolytic administration
d. prefrontal lobotomy
30. Currently in American psychiatric hospitals, approximately what percentage of patients is given electroconvulsive treatment (ECT)?
a. 2.5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 37%
Chapter 18 Psychology in Action
How Is Behavior Affected by the Work Environment?
1. With what area is industrial/organizational psychology concerned?
a. how individual behavior is affected by the work environment
b. how individual behavior is affected by co-workers
c. how individual behavior is affected by organizational practices
d. all of the above
2. Out of which two fields did industrial/organizational primarily arise?
a. individual differences and social psychology
b. social psychology and business administration
c. business administration and psychological testing
d. psychological testing and humanistic psychology
3. When one creates a detailed description of the various activities, tasks, knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to fulfill an employee’s position, this is called a(n)
a. occupation dissection.
b. job analysis.
c. functional career classification.
d. employment screening.
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the best measures for helping employers make hiring decisions, as listed in the text?
a. mental ability tests
b. calling references
c. work samples
d. integrity tests
5. A(n) ________ is a statistical procedure used to combine and evaluate results from multiple studies which address the same topic.
a. factor analysis
b. Pearson correlation
c. meta-analysis
d. analysis of variance
6. Who typically conducts an employee’s performance appraisal?
a. the employee him or herself
b. the employee’s co-worker peers
c. the employee’s immediate supervisor
d. an agent of the human resources department
7. Which of the following is a top characteristic of jobs that cause stress and unhappiness, as listed in the text?
a. work overload
b. dangerous work conditions
c. lack of control of work
d. all of the above
8. Which theory suggests that a worker’s effort and desire to maintain goal-directed behaviors are determined by their beliefs about the likely outcomes of the behaviors?
a. goal-setting theory
b. expectancy theory
c. equity theory
d. organizational theory
9. Which of the following is NOT a key factor related to job satisfaction, as listed in the text?
a. work that is interesting and where there are opportunities to apply one’s own judgment
b. work that pays at least as much as another job that would require less work and time
c. perceived job security, a pleasant environment, and adequate information and materials
d. opportunities to interact socially and in teams, where co-workers are friendly and supportive
10. A(n) ________ leader is one who seeks to effect change by inspiring others with his/her charisma and providing stimulation and attention to his/her followers.
a. transformational
b. boss-centered
c. transactional
d. ubiquitous
How Do Human Factors Affect Performance?
11. Human factors is the study of the relationship of ________ to _________.
a. information; technology
b. line employees; middle and upper management
c. human beings; machines and workplaces
d. pay; production
12. Geller and others use behavior-based safety as a means to
a. investigate accidents which have occurred.
b. discover systematic barriers to worker safety.
c. design improved methods to prevent future injuries.
d. all of the above
13. Which type of research is most likely to focus on variables such as temperature and noise in the workplace?
a. environmental
b. perceptual
c. fail-safe
d. exclusion
How Do Psychology and the Law Work Together?
14. Psychologists who work in the legal arena and focus on such things as the insanity defense, competency to stand trial, and commitment to hospitals, work in the field of ________ psychology.
a. legal
b. litigation
c. forensic
d. authority
15. Psychologists who testify about their professional opinions in courts are called ________ witnesses.
a. professional
b. expert
c. mercenary
d. criminal insanity
16. Which of the following is the most accurate statement on the relationship between the death penalty and rates of violence?
a. the death penalty is a strong deterrent of violence
b. the death penalty is a moderate deterrent of violence
c. the death penalty is at best a weak deterrent of violence
d. the death penalty actually increases the rate of violent crimes
What Are the Goals of Sport Psychology?
17. Which of the following is NOT one of the areas in which sports psychologists work, as listed in the text?
a. improving sports performance
b. enhancing young participants’ sports experiences
c. assisting with injury rehabilitation
d. predicting outcomes of games
18. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about arousal and sports performance?
a. The less one is aroused, the better one will perform.
b. The more one is aroused, the better one will perform.
c. The more one is aroused, the better one will perform, up to a point.
d. There is no relationship between levels of arousal and levels of performance.
19. Which of the following is NOT one of the anxiety intervention strategies for athletes listed in the text?
a. hypnosis
b. mental imagery
c. progressive relaxation
d. psychodynamic therapy
20. ________, or “being in the zone,” is when one is totally engrossed in overcoming a challenge.
a. Flow
b. Stream
c. Drift
d. Glide
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