T023 Anxiety Disorders in Children and Adolescents



T023 Anxiety Disorders in Children and Adolescents

Questions from chapter 1

1) Pediatric anxiety disorders affect approximately what percent of children and adolescents at some point in their lives?

a) 15%

b) 20%

c) 25%

d) 30%

2) According to LeDoux (1995) the brain state associated with the response to a CS is what type of fear?

a) response-specific

b) situation-specific

c) cue-specific

d) species-specific

3) According to Bechara et al. (1995) lesion-deficit studies show a critical role in the fear conditioning process is played by the

a) pons

b) corpus callosum

c) prefrontal cortex

d) amygdala

4) Which test of attention has participants name the color of a word while ignoring the word meaning?

a) emotional stroop test

b) STAI

c) rainbow test

d) hue discrimination test

5) According to LeDoux (1993) another name for a emotional learning is emotional memory.

a) True

b) False

Questions from chapter 2

6) According to Kagan et al. (1988) research over the past 10-15 years has focused on what temperamental construct of anxiety disorders?

a) avoidance conditioning

b) emotional learned helplessness

c) emotional accommodation

d) behavioral inhibition to the unfamiliar

7) BI manifest differently at different ages.

a) True

b) False

8) BI appears to have what level of heritability?

a) negligible

b) low

c) moderate

d) high

9) Associated constructs that capture similar variation to BI in child temperament or behavior, include all EXCEPT

a) shyness

b) social fearfulness

c) separation anxiety

d) social withdrawal

10) In a study of at-risk offspring Rosenbaum et al. (2000) found BI in offspring was significantly associated with a lifetime history of parental

a) anxiety

b) psychosis

c) drug or alcohol abuse

d) depression

Questions from chapter 3

11) What does Kazdin (1989) describe as "The study of clinical dysfunction over the course of development"?

a) developmental psychopathology

b) ontological mapping

c) psychogenesis

d) longitudinal navigation

12) What laboratory task did Ainsworth et al. (1978) use to study parent-child attachment?

a) visual cliff

b) Barney-exposure task

c) strange situation

d) hall of mirrors

13) What did LaGreca et al. (1988) find to be inversely related to social anxiety in children and adolescents?

a) socio-economic status

b) peer acceptance

c) intelligence

d) athletic ability

14) What instrument to measure friendship quality was developed by Parker and Asher (1993)?

a) Friendships Qualities Scale

b) Network of Relations Inventory

c) Friendships Interview

d) Friendship Quality Questionnaire

15) What family therapy process is based on behavioral family intervention strategies proven effective in the treatment of disruptive behavior disorders?

a) behavioral family therapy

b) systemic family therapy

c) family anxiety management

d) family disruption management

Questions from chapter 4

16) According to Plomin et al. (2001) adoption studies difficulties include all EXCEPT

a) adoptive families are not representative of the general population

b) biological mothers provide the child's environment for nine months

c) the biological father's history is often unknown

d) selective placement occurs

17) Achenbach (1991) states that parents are rather poor at distinguishing between anxiety and depression in their children.

a) True

b) False

18) Legrand et al. (1999) found that trait anxiety symptoms were moderately heritable, with genes accounting for how much of the variance?

a) 40%

b) 45%

c) 50%

d) 55%

19) According to the studies reviewed by Eley and Stevenson (1999b) little of the covariation between anxiety and depression can be explained by genetic factors.

a) True

b) False

20) Plomin et al. (1977) list 3 types of gene-environment correlations which include all EXCEPT

a) passive

b) evocative

c) active

d) inhibitory

Questions from chapter 5

21) Stallings and March (1995) proposed selection criteria for assessment instruments which include all EXCEPT

a) provide reliable and valid information

b) are immune to treatment effects

c) discriminate among symptom clusters

d) incorporate multiple observations

22) Which is considered the "gold standard" interview for assessing anxiety in youths?

a) SADS

b) DISC-IV

c) ADIS-C/P

d) DICA-R

23) Which is a 45 item self-report instrument that screens for anxiety symptoms experienced by children and adolescents.

a) BASC

b) TASC

c) RASC

d) MASC

24) Which is a semistructured clinical interview used to evaluate the severity of obsessive-compulsive symptoms among children and adolescents 6-17 years old?

a) CY-BOCS

b) MONK

c) OCD-CA

d) DIS-U

25) Family observation research suggests that mothers and fathers of anxious children may do all EXCEPT

a) experience heightened levels of anxiety

b) try to vicariously experience life through their children

c) have a parenting style marked by overprotection intrusiveness and control

d) model and reinforce perceived threat and anxiety related avoidance

Questions from chapter 6

26) What is considered by some to be the defining feature of GAD?

a) avoidance

b) perseverance

c) frustration

d) worry

27) Rapee (1991) has suggested that GAD may be nothing more than high levels of

a) state anxiety

b) serotonin

c) trait anxiety

d) norepinephrine

28) Prevalence rates of GAD using strict diagnostic criteria range from

a) 2-4%

b) 4-6%

c) 6-8%

d) 8-10%

29) What describes a temperamental feature characterized by irritability in infancy, fearfulnesses in toddlerhood, and shyness, wariness, and withdrawal in childhood?

a) insecure attachment

b) reactive attachment

c) emotional inhibition

d) behavioral inhibition

30) Simeon et al. (1992) found no significant difference between alprazolam and placebo in children and adolescents diagnosed with overanxious or avoidant disorders.

a) True

b) False

Questions from chapter 7

31) Which social situation was most feared by children with social phobia?

a) musical or athletic performances

b) reading aloud in front of the class

c) joining in on a conversation

d) speaking to adults

32) Ost (1985) reported what percent of subjects with social phobia attributed its onset to a direct traumatic conditioning event?

a) 38%

b) 48%

c) 58%

d) 68%

33) The first treatment program designed specifically for socially phobic youths is

a) SET-C

b) INVIVO

c) GCBT-A

d) SHY

34) What is usually considered the first-line pharmacological agent for social phobia?

a) tricyclics

b) anaxiolitics

c) neuroleptics

d) SSRIs

Questions from chapter 8

35) Separation anxiety became a distinct clinical diagnostic category in

a) DSM-I

b) DSM-II

c) DSM-III

d) DSM-IV

36) According to Kashani & Orvaschel (1990) the prevalence of reported SAD symptoms without significant impairment in a eight-year-olds is up to

a) 50%

b) 55%

c) 60%

d) 65%

37) School-refusal behavior or school phobia is a separate diagnostic category from SAD.

a) True

b) False

38) Hersen et al. (1987) found 53% of mothers of SAD children had a lifetime diagnosis of

a) major depression

b) an anxiety disorder

c) chemical dependency

d) a personality disorder

39) Silverman & Berman (2001) found general consensus that the methods of choice for anxiety disorders are exposure based

a) interpersonal treatments

b) cognitive-behavioral treatments

c) psychodynamic treatments

d) rational emotive treatments

Questions from chapter 9

40) According to Ollendick et al. (1994) most cases of PD occur in

a) female children

b) male children

c) adolescent females

d) adolescent males

41) The 3 types of panic attacks include all EXCEPT

a) uncued

b) cued

c) situationally bound

d) situationally predisposed

42) Up to what percent of children and adolescents with PD have other, comorbid anxiety disorders?

a) 80%

b) 85%

c) 90%

d) 95%

43) The treatment for PD evolving from Barlow's (2002) perspective is known as

a) stop drop & role-play

b) panic control treatment

c) the worry worm

d) the turtle technique

44) For an appropriate acute trial to treat PD, the SSRIs should be administered for least

a) 12 weeks

b) 16 weeks

c) 24 weeks

d) 36 weeks

Questions from chapter 10

45) At any given time, what percent of children and adolescents suffer from clinically significant OCD?

a) 0.5-1%

b) 1-2%

c) 3-5%

d) 5-8%

46) In clinical samples, the mean age of onset for OCD was

a) 7

b) 10

c) 13

d) 16

47) Which assessment instrument was specifically designed to save time in collecting information?

a) CMDQ

b) CY-BOCS

c) ADIS-C

d) MASC

48) Which was the first medication to be studied in treating OCD in children and adolescents?

a) sertraline

b) clomipramine

c) fluvoxamine

d) citalopram

49) Which is NOT a criteria necessary to diagnose PANDAS?

a) postpubertal symptom onset

b) presence of OCD, a tic disorder or both

c) episodic course of symptom severity

d) association with neurological abnormalities

Questions from chapter 11

50) Giaconia et al. (1995) found what percent of adolescents in a community school sample experienced a PTSD-qualifying trauma by age 18?

a) 40%

b) 45%

c) 50%

d) 55%

51) Which is NOT a DSM-IV criteria of PTSD?

a) subsequent reexperiencing of the event

b) increased goal directed behaviors

c) consequent avoidance or numbing of general responsiveness

d) persistent increased arousal

52) Regarding comorbidity, Giaconia et al. (1995) found adolescents with PTSD had a 25% increased risk of

a) drug dependence

b) social anxiety

c) specific phobia

d) alcohol dependence

53) Most reports tend to treat ASD as

a) a normal developmental stage

b) not a valid diagnosis

c) provisional PTSD

d) an urban legend

54) There is little or no empirical evidence to support combining treatments for PTSD within or across treatment modalities.

a) True

b) False

Questions from chapter 12

55) Which is NOT one of the response systems in Lang's tripartite model?

a) cognitive

b) emotional

c) physiological

d) overt-behavioral

56) Specific phobia is more prevalent among girls than boys.

a) True

b) False

57) What did Marks posit was the underlying mechanism in cognitive behavioral therapy for phobias?

a) cognitive restructuring

b) exposure

c) positive cognitions

d) flooding

58) In the STOP acronym the "P" stands for

a) pause

b) panic

c) perspective

d) praise

59) The cognitive-behavioral program for children with specific phobias developed by Silverman & Carmichael (1999) includes each phase EXCEPT

a) education

b) evaluation

c) application

d) relapse prevention

Questions from chapter 13

60) Which is NOT one of Hayden's (1980) subtypes of selective mutism?

a) symbiotic

b) narcissistic

c) passive-aggressive

d) speech-phobic

61) Selective mutism is currently classified in the DSM-IV under Anxiety NOS.

a) True

b) False

62) Dummit et al. (1997) found rates of oppositional defiant disorder co occurring with selective mutism to be

a) 1 in 50

b) 1 in 25

c) 1 in 10

d) 1 in 4

63) Generally, the first and primary intervention for selective mutism is

a) psychosocial interventions

b) behavior therapy

c) psychodynamic psychotherapy

d) psychopharmacology

64) For K.M. in the case study, diagnostic impressions included all EXCEPT

a) selective mutism

b) overanxious disorder

c) social phobia

d) receptive language delay

Questions from chapter 14

65) Exposure-based treatments are based on principles of

a) classical conditioning

b) voyeurism

c) operant conditioning

d) contingency management

66) Repeated and prolonged exposure to the feared stimulus with a goal of extinguishing the anxiety response describes

a) wading

b) bobbing

c) immersing

d) flooding

67) The integrated cognitive-behavioral approach for anxiety disorders promoted by Kendall et al. (1992) is the

a) proud possum program

b) tenacious turtle program

c) assertive aardvark program

d) coping cat program

68) All of the following are cognitive techniques used to treat OCD EXCEPT

a) modeling

b) thought stopping

c) cognitive restructuring

d) satiation

69) The first serotonergic antidepressant to gain an FDA indication for pediatric OCD was

a) fluvoxamine

b) sertraline

c) clomipramine

d) citalopram

70) Treatment of OCD with SSRIs should be continued at maximum therapeutic dose before switching or combining treatments for least

a) 6 weeks

b) 9 weeks

c) 12 weeks

d) 16 weeks

71) Birmaher et al. (1994) in a study of children and adolescents with overanxious disorder, reported significant improvements in anxiety in more than 80 percent of participants when treated with

a) fluoxetine

b) buspirone

c) clonazepam

d) propranolol

72) Saxe et al. (2001) suggest a possible preventive agent in PTSD is

a) carbamazepine

b) imipramine

c) citalopram

d) morphine

Questions from chapter 16

73) Psychosocial treatments are often combined with medications for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a) two treatments provide a greater "dose"

b) the presence of comorbidity

c) managed care requirements

d) when there is partial response to one therapy another treatment may lead to greater symptom reduction

74) The first step in evaluating a relevant question in EBM is to frame the question in terms of

a) Y-O-D-A

b) R-E-B-T

c) T-R-E-O

d) P-E-C-O

75) In deciding if the results of a study are clinically meaningful, EBM considers the

a) number needed to treat

b) cost-benefit ratio

c) lowest common denominator

d) observable measurable metric

Questions from chapter 17

76) The classification of the interventions adopted by the Institute of Medicine include all EXCEPT

a) proactive

b) universal

c) selective

d) indicated

77) The Friends for Children program reported by the authors is an example of what type of intervention?

a) proactive

b) universal

c) selective

d) indicated

78) Potential difficulties for universal interventions include all EXCEPT

a) the need for screening and identifying children at risk

b) they require substantial funding and resources

c) gaining access to entire populations of children and youths

d) the relatively low dose effect the strategy may offer

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