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MTA Operating Systems Question Bank : Lesson 1-8
Lesson 1: Introducing, Installing, and Upgrading Windows 7
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is a server role for Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2 that allows for mostly automated installation of Windows 7 over a network?
a) Windows Automated Installation Kit
b) ImageX
c) Windows Deployment Services
d) Windows Preinstallation Environment (WinPE)
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Installation Types
Explanation: Windows Deployment Services is a server role for Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2008 R2. It allows a user to press the F12 key, log on, and select an image for installation. After that, the installation can be automated.
2. Which Windows 7 edition does not support x64 CPUs?
a) Professional
b) Home Premium
c) Home Basic
d) Starter
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying Windows Operating System Editions
Explanation: All editions of Windows 7 support 32-bit systems, and all editions except Windows 7 Starter support 64-bit systems.
3. Which three editions of Windows 7 are widely available in the retail sector?
a) Home Premium
b) Professional
c) Ultimate
d) Enterprise
Answer: a, b, c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Identifying Windows Operating System Editions
Explanation: Of the six editions of Windows 7, only Home Premium, Professional, and Ultimate are widely available in the retail sector. The other editions are designed for certain types of computers or markets, or specifically for enterprise use.
4. Companies must have a Software Assurance Agreement with Microsoft to purchase licenses of which edition of Windows 7?
a) Enterprise
b) Ultimate
c) Professional
d) Home Premium
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Other Windows 7 Editions: Starter, Home Basic, and Enterprise
Explanation: Windows 7 Enterprise is available only through special corporate licensing agreements. Companies must have a Software Assurance Agreement with Microsoft to purchase software licenses.
5. Which of the following creates a MIG file?
a) A custom installation
b) An upgrade installation
c) Windows Easy Transfer
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Using Windows Easy Transfer
Explanation: When transferring files between computers, Windows Easy Transfer uses a MIG file (migration file) to store user data and settings.
6. Windows 7 Professional includes all of the following features except:
a) Windows XP Mode
b) BitLocker
c) Support for joining domains
d) Encrypting File System
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Windows 7 Professional is targeted mainly toward small business users but appeals to power users as well. It includes all the features of Windows 7 Home Premium and adds the ability to join a Windows domain. Additional features include location-aware printing, acting as a Remote Desktop host (especially useful for tech support), Encrypting File System, and Windows XP Mode. Windows 7 Ultimate contains all of the same features as Windows 7 Professional and includes the applications BitLocker and AppLocker.
7. Which tool scans your computer and produces a report of any Windows 7 compatibility issues with your computer?
a) Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor
b) Windows Easy Transfer
c) Windows 7 Compatibility Center
d) Windows Anytime Upgrade
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Using Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor
Explanation: Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is a good preparation tool that checks your computer’s hardware, attached devices, and installed programs for compatibility issues with Windows 7. The tool creates reports that list potential issues, such as an incompatible printer or a legacy application, and either recommends solutions or points to resources for further information. You also find out which version of Windows 7 is best for your computer.
8. Which two resources help you identify and resolve application compatibility issues with Windows 7?
a) Windows Easy Transfer
b) Windows 7 Compatibility Center
c) Windows 7 Application Compatibility List for IT Professionals
d) The Computer window
Answer: b, c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Application Compatibility
Explanation: Two resources to help you identify and resolve application compatibility issues are the Windows 7 Compatibility Center and the Windows 7 Application Compatibility List for IT Professionals.
9. Which Windows 7 installation requires System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) for network deployments?
a) Windows Anytime Upgrade
b) HTI
c) LTI
d) ZTI
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Installation Types
Explanation: Zero Touch Installation (ZTI) is a fully automated, “touchless” method of installing Windows. You need System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) for ZTIs. You use SCCM to deploy and update servers, client computers, and all kinds of devices on a network.
10. Which Windows 7 installation method requires some human interaction in the early phase of the installation but uses Windows Deployment Services, among other tools, to automate the installation from that point on?
a) Windows Anytime Upgrade
b) HTI
c) LTI
d) ZTI
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Installation Types
Explanation: Lite Touch Installation (LTI) requires some human intervention in the early phase of the installation but is automated (or unattended) from that point on. You need the Windows AIK, Windows Deployment Services, and the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit 2010 for LTIs.
11. To use Windows Anytime Upgrade to perform an in-place upgrade, what must you buy from Microsoft or your preferred retailer?
a) An upgrade key
b) A full version of Windows 7
c) An upgrade version of Windows 7
d) Nothing
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Upgrade Paths from Other Operating Systems
Explanation: To perform a Windows Anytime Upgrade, you must buy an upgrade key from Microsoft or your preferred retailer. You should run Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor before purchasing an upgrade key to ensure your system is ready for the upgrade.
12. You are currently running Windows Vista Business. You can use the upgrade installation method to upgrade to which Windows 7 edition? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Windows 7 Ultimate
b) Windows 7 Professional
c) Windows 7 Home Premium
d) Windows 7 Home Basic
Answer: a, b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Identifying Upgrade Paths
Explanation: See Table 1-2 in Lesson 1.
13. Which of the following requires a custom installation of Windows 7?
a) You're installing an equivalent or higher edition of Windows 7.
b) You plan to use a different language in Windows 7 than the language you’re using in Windows Vista.
c) You're running Windows 7 Home Premium but want to upgrade to Windows 7 Professional.
c) You're running Windows 7 Professional but want to upgrade to Windows 7 Ultimate.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Upgrade Paths from Windows Vista, Upgrade Paths from Other Operating Systems
Explanation: To upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you can perform an upgrade installation if you're installing an equivalent or higher edition of Windows 7. Otherwise, you must perform a custom installation. To upgrade to Windows 7 from Windows 95 or Windows 2000, you need to purchase a full version of Windows 7 and perform a custom installation. However, you can easily upgrade from one edition of Windows 7 to a more advanced edition using Windows Anytime Upgrade.
14. You want to determine if your computer is running a 32-bit or 64-bit version of Windows 7. What method can you use? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Run Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
b) Open the System window.
c) Open the Computer window.
d) Run the System Information utility.
Answer: b, d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Determine If Your PC Is Running 32-Bit Windows or 64-Bit Windows
Explanation: See the step-by-step exercise. To open the System window, click the Start button, right-click Computer, and then click Properties. The System window displays. Look in the System area to view the system type. To run the System Information utility, click the Start button, type system info in the Start menu search box, and then click System Information in the resulting list. Make sure System Summary is selected in the navigation pane on the left. Look at the System Type value in the right pane: “x86-based PC” displays for a 32-bit operating system, and “x64-based PC” displays for a 64-bit operating system
15. Where can you find a Windows 7 product key? (Choose all that apply.)
a) On the installation media itself
b) On the installation disc holder inside the Windows package
c) On a sticker on the back or bottom of your computer
d) In a confirmation e-mail if you purchased and downloaded Windows 7 online
Answer: b, c, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Product Identification Keys
Explanation: The Windows 7 product key is usually located on the installation disc holder inside the Windows package, on a sticker on the back or bottom of your computer if the operating system came pre-installed on the computer, or in a confirmation e-mail if you purchased and downloaded Windows 7 online.
Fill in the Blank
16. _______ is the process of verifying that your copy of Windows is genuine and that it is not in use on more computers than the number for which you own licenses.
Answer: Activation
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Activating Windows 7
Explanation: Activation is the process of verifying that your copy of Windows is genuine and that it is not in use on other computers than the number for which you own a license. If you purchased a single copy of Windows 7 from a retailer, for example, you can activate the software on only one computer at a time. Within 30 days of installing Windows 7, activate the software over the Web or by calling Microsoft. Once your Windows 7 installation is activated, you can use all features of the operating system.
17. ___________ is a fully automated, touchless method of installing Windows.
Answer: Zero Touch Installation or ZTI
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Installation Types
Explanation: Zero Touch Installation (ZTI) is a fully automated, “touchless” method of installing Windows. You need System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) for ZTIs. You use SCCM to deploy and update servers, client computers, and all kinds of devices on a network.
Short Answer
18. What does “the cloud” generally refer to?
Answer: The Internet or a server accessible over the Internet
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Installation Types
Explanation: The cloud generally refers to the Internet or to a server accessible over the Internet. You can install Windows 7 from the cloud in addition to using other methods.
19. Why should you back up your data files before upgrainging from Windows XP to Windows 7?
Answer: Your files, programs, and settings will be overwritten during the upgrade
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Upgrade Paths from Windows XP
Explanation: To upgrade from Windows XP to Windows 7, you must perform a custom installation. Because your files, programs, and settings will be overwritten, back up all of your data files first. A best practice is to create at least two backups and test both of them before proceeding with the upgrade.
20. You work from a small office/home office. Once you upgrade to Windows 7, you need Encrypting File System (EFS) and Windows XP Mode. However, you also want to use Windows Media Center, Remote Media Streaming, and Backup and Restore. Which edition of Windows 7 should you install?
Answer: Windows 7 Professional or Windows 7 Ultimate
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, and Ultimate
Explanation: Although Windows 7 Home Premium is targeted to SOHO users, it does not include EFS or Windows XP Mode. You can get all of the required features in Windows 7 Professional or Windows 7 Ultimate.
Lesson 2: Understanding Operating System Configurations
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following includes applets such as System and Security, Programs, and User Accounts and FamilySafety?
a) Control Panel
b) Administrative Tools
c) Ease of Access Center
d) The gadget gallery
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configuring Control Panel options
Explanation: The Windows 7 Control Panel provides access to the primary tools and utilities used to manage devices, settings, and system behaviors on Windows PCs. You’ll find control applets (small applications) such as System and Security, Programs, User Accounts and Family Safety, and more.
2. Which of the following can you perform by clicking options in the Manage Accounts window? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Delete the account
b) Create a password
c) Set up Parental Controls
d) Change the account type
Answer: a, b, c, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Create a User Account
Explanation: From the Manage Accounts window, you can set up parental controls. The delete an account, create a password for an account, or change an account type, click an account name.
3. Which of the following allows you to manage all programs that run when Windows starts or when you log on?
a) System Configuration
b) Event Viewer
c) Performance Monitor
d) Programs applet in Control Panel
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Configuring Administrative Tools
Explanation: See Table 2-2 in Lesson 2.
4. Which action commonly results in the User Account Control dialog box opening?
a) Creating a shortcut
b) Changing resolution
c) Uninstalling a program
d) Adding a gadget
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding User Account Control (UAC)
Explanation: If you’re logged on as a standard user and you attempt to make a change that requires administrative-level permissions, UAC displays a dialog box. Some actions that can trigger a User Account Control dialog box include installing and uninstalling programs, changing system-wide settings, changing UAC settings, and adding or removing user accounts.
5. How do you open the Windows 7 gadget gallery?
a) Right-click the Windows taskbar and select Gadget gallery.
b) Click the down arrow to the right of the Windows Sidebar.
c) Click Start, and then click Gadgets.
d) Right-click a blank area of the desktop and select Gadgets.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Configuring Gadgets
Explanation: To open the Windows 7 gadget gallery, right-click an empty portion of the desktop and select Gadgets. The Windows 7 gadget gallery displays.
6. You want to directly access Event Viewer. From what location is this possible?
a) User Account Control dialog box
b) Gadgets window
c) Programs applet in Control Panel
d) Administrative Tools
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Configuring Administrative Tools
Explanation: See Table 2-2 in Lesson 2.
7. What do you click in Windows 7 to minimize all open windows at once?
a) The taskbar
b) Any desktop shortcut
c) The Show Desktop button
d) The Start button
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Exploring and Configuring the Aero Interface
Explanation: To minimize all open windows at once, click the Show Desktop button. This button is the small shaded rectangle at the far right end of the taskbar. Pointing at it with your mouse pointer displays a preview of the desktop. This is called peeking at the desktop and is part of the Aero Peek feature. If you click the Show Desktop button, all open windows are minimized.
8. Which Ease of Access Center tool uses a special color scheme that makes some text easier to read and some images easier to identify on-screen?
a) High Contrast theme
b) On-Screen Keyboard
c) Magnifier
d) Narrator
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configuring Accessibility Options
Explanation: The High Contrast theme option in Ease of Access Center is a color scheme that makes some text easier to read and some images easier to identify on-screen.
9. All of the following are UAC notification levels except:
a) Always notify me
b) Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer
c) Never notify me of installations or changes
d) Notify me only when users try to access my files
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Types of UAC Prompts and Levels
Explanation: UAC notification levels include:
• Always notify me
• Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer
• Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop)
• Never notify me of installations or changes
10. Which of the following is not an account type in Windows 7?
a) Standard user
b) Administrator
c) Guest
d) Limited user
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Standard User Accounts and Administrative User Accounts
Explanation: The two most commonly used account types in Windows 7 are Standard user and Administrator. The Guest account type is simply an account with few permissions and no password that allows a user to use a computer without requiring a unique user account. Windows 7 does not have a Limited user account type.
11. Which of the following is an Aero feature that quickly minimizes all open windows except the active one?
a) Snap
b) Peek
c) Shake
d) Show Desktop
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Exploring and Configuring the Aero Interface
Explanation: Aero Shake allows you to quickly minimize all open windows except the active one. Point the mouse at the title bar of the active window, click the hold and left mouse button, and then quickly move the mouse back and forth to shake it.
12. You can configure the following settings from the Screen Resolution window except:
a) Orientation
b) Windows theme
c) Font size
d) Display
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Configuring Desktop Settings, Configuring Display Settings
Explanation: The Windows 7 Screen Resolution window allows you to configure many display-related settings. This is where you choose which monitor to use (if your computer is connected to two or more monitors), whether to display content in a landscape or portrait orientation, and select screen font size, among others settings. You select a Windows theme by right-clicking a blank area of the desktop and choosing Personalize.
13. What is a free download for Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate versions that supports legacy applications inside a virtual Windows XP machine running on Windows 7?
a) Control Panel
b) Windows XP Mode
c) The gadget gallery
d) None of the above
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Windows XP Mode
Explanation: Windows XP Mode is an add-on that Microsoft makes available as an extension to Windows Virtual PC. When you install this virtual machine environment on a Windows 7 computer, users can run applications inside the VM that won’t work on Windows 7. Windows XP Mode works only on Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate.
14. You to run Windows XP Mode in Windows 7. Which edition do you need? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Enterprise
b) Ultimate
c) Professional
d) Home Premium
e) Starter
Answer: a, b, c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Windows XP Mode
Explanation: Although Windows Virtual PC runs on all Windows 7 versions, Windows XP Mode works only on Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate.
15. What does the acronym VHD stand for?
a) Variable Hex Determinant
b) Virtual Hard Disk
c) Virtual Hard Drive
d) Virtual Home Directory
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Med-V
Explanation: Users access special pre-defined virtual hard disks (VHDs) to run Med-V virtual machines.
Fill in the Blank
16. The _____ interface includes translucent borders and animations, and is the basis for the default theme in Windows 7.
Answer: Aero
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configuring Desktop Settings
Explanation: Windows 7 is the default theme in Windows 7, which is an Aero theme. The Aero interface includes translucent borders and animations.
17. _____________ allows applications to run without being installed on desktop systems.
Answer: Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding VDI and App-V
Explanation: App-V extends virtualized applications from central servers to authorized users on any authorized PCs without requiring application installs. Users simply request access to an application; virtualization technology running in the background brokers a connection to a suitable server and delivers direct access to the application with minimal delay.
Short Answer
18. What can you use in Windows 7 do you use to troubleshoot and resolve computer problems, and to keep your system running optimally?
Answer: Administrative Tools
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Configuring Administrative Tools
Explanation: Administrative Tools is a well-rounded toolkit of utilities for power users and administrators. These utilities can help resolve most computer problems you may encounter and keep your system running optimally.
19. A user is not able to move her Windows 7 taskbar from the bottom of the screen to the right side of the screen. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Answer: The taskbar is locked.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Configuring Desktop Settings
Explanation: The Windows desktop is a flexible, configurable part of the Windows environment. You can grab the taskbar and move it to either side of the screen, to the top, or back to its default location at the bottom. The taskbar must be unlocked to move it. To unlock the taskbar, right-click it and select Lock the taskbar to deselect the option.
20. What is the primary difference between a standard user account and an administrative user account?
Answer: A standard account is generally used for everyday tasks and an administrative-level account is used for troubleshooting, installation, and similar tasks that require more rights and permissions.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Standard User Accounts and Administrative User Accounts
Explanation: The Standard user account type has fewer permissions than an administrative-level account but enough permissions to be productive. You should use a standard account for day-to-day work. When you’re logged on as a standard user, you can surf the Web, read e-mail, create documents, listen to music, as well as other rather basic tasks. The Administrator account type provides the broadest permissions and therefore the most control over the computer. This includes changing all settings, installing programs, and modifying the Windows registry. Use an administrative-level account only when you need to make changes or perform maintenance that requires elevated permissions. Using an administrative account for ordinary (Standard-level) computing tasks leaves the computer at a much greater risk of attack. For example, if you visit a malicious Web site by accident, the site can easily install and execute a Trojan horse program on the computer because of the broad permissions of the administrative account.
Lesson 3: Understanding Native Applications, Tools, Mobility, and Remote Management and Assistance
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following enables your computer to act like a digital video recorder (DVR)?
a) Windows Media Center
b) Windows Media Player
c) Sync Center
d) Windows Mobility Center
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Windows Media Center
Explanation: Watching TV programming in Windows Media Center requires a TV tuner and a subscription to a cable service or a similar service. You don’t need a DVR—your computer acts like a DVR, enabling you to record shows and even schedule shows in advance.
2. The Snipping Tool allows you to do which of the following?
a) Change the color of a captured image
b) Add typed labels
c) Save in PDF format
d) Annotate an image with the pen tool
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using the Snipping Tool
Explanation: The Snipping Tool is a Windows 7 accessory program that allows you to take screen shots, use the pen tool to annotate them, and save the images in GIF, JPG, PNG, or HTML format. You can add freehand annotations, highlight or erase part of the image, or send it to a recipient via e-mail. You cannot change the color of a captured image or add typed labels.
3. After you synchronize files between your computer and a network location, what are the files on your computer referred to as?
a) Offline files
b) Local network files
c) Protected files
d) Restored files
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Sync Center
Explanation: You use the Sync Center to sync local files with a network location. After syncing is complete, you can access network files without being connected to the resource. These files are referred to as offline files.
4. When you want to run a program with elevated or administrative privileges, you can right-click the program’s link and select which shortcut menu item?
a) Run as administrator
b) Run with permission
c) Run elevated
d) Run protected
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Introducing Accessory Programs
Explanation: The Run command allows you to run commands from the Start menu. Some commands require elevated or administrative privileges; to run these commands, use the Run as administrator command.
5. Which of the following can you do with Windows Media Player 12? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Create playlists
b) Rip music from a CD
c) Play a slide show
d) Stream video files over the Internet
Answer: a, b, c, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Windows Media Player
Explanation: Windows Media Player 12 is a program that allows you to play back music and video files. You can also create playlists, rip music from a CD, and play a slide show of photos. Using the Play to command, you can share multimedia files across a network with a Homegroup (a personal network, usually set up at home) or across the Internet.
6. Which Windows 7 feature lets you adjust a laptop’s power plan and screen brightness?
a) Windows Media Center
b) Sync Center
c) Remote Desktop Connection
d) Windows Mobility Center
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Windows Mobility Center
Explanation: Rather than using different tools to adjust a laptop’s screen brightness, power plan, wireless settings, and more, just open the Windows Mobility Center, which displays groups of settings all in one interface.
7. The following are security or privacy features of Internet Explorer 9 except:
a) Domain highlighting
b) InPrivate Browsing
c) ActiveX Filtering
d) A pinned site
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Windows Internet Explorer
Explanation: InPrivate Browsing, ActiveX Filtering, and domain highlighting are all security or privacy features of Internet Explorer 9. A pinned site is a Web site you “attach” to the Windows 7 taskbar from Internet Explorer 9. A pinned site is simply a quick way to open a Web site, much like you open a program that’s pinned to the taskbar.
8. Which utility do you use to run the ps cmdlet?
a) Computer Management
b) MS-DOS command window
c) Windows Remote Assistance
d) Windows PowerShell
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Using Windows PowerShell
Explanation: You can run the ps command in Windows PowerShell lists the currently running processes and their details, such as the process ID, process name, and percentage of processor usage (CPU).
9. Which Internet Explorer 9 feature lets you control which Web sites can track your online browsing activity and receive that information?
a) InPrivate Browsing
b) ActiveX Filtering
c) Tracking Protection
d) SmartScreen Filter
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Managing Security Features
Explanation: Tracking Protection is a feature of Internet Explorer 9 that helps you control which Web sites can track your online browsing activity and receive that information.
10. Which of the following is best to use for accessing your home computer from work to get a file you worked on last night?
a) Remote Desktop Connection
b) Disk Management
c) Sync Center
d) Windows Remote Assistance
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Remote Desktop Connection
Explanation: Remote Desktop Connection allows you to set up a computer for remote access, and then connect to that computer wherever you may be. All you need is an Internet connection.
11. Which of the following can you do in Windows Media Center but not in Windows Media Player?
a) Watch recorded TV
b) Share files over a network
c) Record TV programming
d) Create playlists
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Windows Media Center
Explanation: Windows Media Center is a multi-faceted program that provides a complete entertainment system for your computer. Similar to Windows Media Player, you use Windows Media Center to play music, create playlists, watch videos, play recorded TV programs, and display pictures and slide shows. However, Media Center offers much more. For example, you can watch, pause, and record HDTV, watch live TV and online programming, and listen to radio stations.
12. You need to configure security zones in Internet Explorer 9. Where are security zone settings located?
a) Internet Options Privacy tab
b) Internet Options Security tab
c) Tracking Protection window
d) Safety menu
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Managing Security Features
Explanation: You select security zones in the Internet Explorer 9 Internet Options dialog box Security tab. A security zone is a group of security settings for a type of site: Internet, Local intranet, Trusted sites, or Restricted sites.
13. You need to connect a projector to your computer. Which of the following do you use?
a) Computer Management console
b) The All Programs Accessories folder
c) Windows Media Player
d) Administrative Tools folder
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Introducing Accessory Programs
Explanation: The Connect to a Projector or Connect to a Network Projector option in the Accessories folder allows you to expand your screen to use another monitor or external projector.
14. Which Internet Explorer 9 feature displays messages and alerts at the bottom of the browser window?
a) Pop-up Blocker
b) Notification bar
c) One Box
d) New Tab page
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Windows Internet Explorer
Explanation: Another new feature of Internet Explorer 9 is the Notification bar, which displays at the bottom of the browser window. All notifications, such as blocked pop-up windows and error messages, display in the Notification bar rather than in pop-up windows
15. Which of the following are accessible from the Computer Management window? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Windows Upgrade Advisor
b) Performance Monitor
c) Event Viewer
d) Disk Management
Answer: b, c, d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Using the MMC
Explanation: Computer Management is a popular snap-in that includes several tools such as Disk Management for configuring hard disks and their partitions and Event Viewer, which allows you to view computer event information such as program starting and stopping (including program crashes) and security problems. You can manage system performance and resources using Performance Monitor, which is under Performance > Monitoring Tools. Windows Upgrade Advisor is not accessible from Computer Management by default.
Fill in the Blank
16. ___________ is a feature in Internet Explorer 9 that incorporates search functionality into the Address bar.
Answer: One Box
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference:
Explanation: Internet Explorer 9 introduces One Box, a feature that combines search functionality into the Address bar. One Box saves you time by using AutoComplete to help you complete Uniform Resource Locators (URLs), and allows you to enter search terms directly in the text box like you would in a search engine.
17. The _____________ in Internet Explorer 9 detects threats on Web sites, such as phishing attacks and malware downloads, and prevents them from running.
Answer: SmartScreen Filter
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Managing Security Features
Explanation: When Internet Explorer 9 detects a malicious Web site, SmartScreen Filter blocks the entire site from being accessed. It can also block malicious portions of legitimate Web sites, allowing the rest of the site to display as normal. SmartScreen Filter is enabled by default.
Short Answer
18. In Window Media Player, which command enables you to share media across a network?
Answer: Play to
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Windows Media Player
Explanation: You can use the Play to command to share multimedia files across a network with a Homegroup (a personal network, usually set up at home) or across the Internet.
19. Using Sync Center, what must you do first before you can sync files on a local computer with a network location?
Answer: Set up a synchronization partnership in Sync Center.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Sync Center
Explanation: To get started with Sync Center, you must first set up a sync partnership with the network or external drive you want to use. Then, anytime you want to ensure your files are synced, right-click the network drive and select Always available offline.
20. Which service enables a user to log on to a Remote Desktop Services server and then run programs and virtual desktops?
Answer: Remote Desktop Web Access
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Remote Desktop Services
Explanation: Remote Desktop Web Access enables a remote user to log on and run programs and virtual desktops. This feature lets users create a RemoteApp and Desktop Connection using the Start menu on a computer running Windows 7 or via a Web browser.
Lesson 4: Managing Applications, Services, Folders, and Libraries
Multiple Choice
1. In Windows 7, what is the name of a virtual folder that can display content from different locations (folders, for example) on your computer or an external drive?
a) EFS
c) Action Center
d) Library
d) None of the above
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Exploring and Managing Libraries
Explanation: A library looks like an ordinary folder but simply points to files and folders that are located elsewhere. You access libraries in Windows Explorer, just like you do files and folders.
2. Which of the following is a collection of settings stored in Active Directory on a Windows network?
a) Certificate store
b) Library
c) Group Policy
d) EFS
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Group Policy and Network Application Installation
Explanation: Group Policy is a collection of settings (policies) stored in Active Directory on a Windows network. Group Policy affects users and computers contained in sites, domains, and organizational units.
3. Which of the following handles requests for print spooling, file indexing, task scheduling, and the Windows Firewall?
a) Dependencies
b) Services
c) Encryption keys
d) NTFS
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Services
Explanation: Services run in the background, essentially helping the operating system work with other programs. Although services do not usually have user interfaces, you can manage services through the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) Services snap-in.
4. Which of the following can you perform using Group Policy? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Update an application
b) Install applications from a network location
c) Restrict user access to an application
d) Encrypt a user’s files
Answer: a, b, c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Group Policy and Network Application Installation
Explanation: In a Windows network in a domain environment, administrators can use Group Policy to ease the burden of administering and managing many users and client computers. Group Policy lets you control who may install software, and on which computers, and helps you push software updates and security configurations across the network. In addition, Group Policy enables you to restrict user access to an application. You do not use Group Policy to encrypt a user’s files.
5. Which tab in System Configuration enables you to launch Performance Monitor?
a) Services
b) Tools
c) Startup
d) General
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding MSCONFIG
Explanation: The Tools tab in the System Configuration utility lists many programs you can start for reporting and diagnostic purposes. Some of the tools are Change UAC Settings, Event Viewer, Performance Monitor, and Task Manager.
6. What is the maximum disk size NTFS can handle?
a) 256 GB
b) 256 TB
c) 32 GB
d) 32 TB
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding FAT, FAT32, and NTFS
Explanation: Most Windows 7 users use NTFS because it supports larger disks than FAT32 or FAT, and NTFS-formatted files and folders provide better security. An NTFS file system supports a maximum disk size of 256 terabytes.
7. What is the primary use of the Programs and Features applet in Control Panel?
a) Compress application files
b) Encrypt application files
c) Uninstall applications
d) Install applications
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Removing or Uninstalling an Application
Explanation: A user or administrator might need to remove, or uninstall, a local application for a variety of reasons. Windows 7 provides the Programs and Features applet in Control Panel for this purpose.
8. Which of the following default accounts can run services in the background but has limited access to resources and objects, which helps protect the system if individual services are compromised. This account is also geared toward networking services.
a) Local Service
b) Network Service
c) Administrator
d) Network Operator
Answer: b
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference:
Explanation: The Local Service account is a built-in account (it’s already created in the operating system). It can run services in the background but has limited access to resources and objects, which helps protect the system if individual services are compromised. The Network Service is similar to the Local Service account but is geared for networking services. The Administrator account has full access to resources and objects. Windows does not have a default Network Operator account.
9. Which of the following is not a default library in Windows 7?
a) Documents
b) Pictures
c) Audio
d) Videos
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Exploring and Managing Libraries
Explanation: The default libraries in Windows 7 are Documents, Music, Pictures, and Videos.
10. Which of the following is not true of Windows 7 libraries?
a) When creating a new library, you must include at least one folder within the library.
b) You can add a location to a library, such as a folder on your C: drive, a second hard drive in your computer, or an external drive.
c) You can copy and save files to a folder in a library but you cannot move a folder into a library.
d) Multiple user accounts on the same computer have separate libraries.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Exploring and Managing Libraries
Explanation: When creating a new library, you must include at least one folder within the library for organizational purposes. You can then copy, move, or save files to the folder in the library. You can add a location such as a folder on your C: drive, a second hard drive in your computer, or an external drive to an existing library. Multiple user accounts on the same computer have separate libraries.
11. Where are EFS certificates stored?
a) Windows Certificate database
b) EFS Certificate database
c) Documents library
d) Certificate library
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Encrypting File System (EFS)
Explanation: When you mark a file for encryption, Windows generates a large, random number—a unique encryption key. The key is used to scramble the contents of the file. This encryption key is also encrypted with a personal file encryption certificate, which is stored in the Windows Certificate database. The file’s encryption key is stored along with the file.
12. After you compress a folder, in what color does it display in Windows Explorer?
a) Black
b) Green
c) Blue
d) Red
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Compression
Explanation: A compressed file or folder displays in blue in Windows Explorer. To uncompress the file or folder, select it, return to the Advanced Attributes dialog box, and deselect the Compress contents to save disk space check box.
13. What chip can BitLocker use to protect BitLocker encryption keys?
a) Trusted Hard Drive Module
b) Trusted Protection Module
c) Encryption Platform Module
d) Trusted Platform Module
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding BitLocker
Explanation: Some computers have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip on the motherboard. If the chip is present, BitLocker uses the TPM chip to protect the BitLocker keys. When a user starts a computer with a TPM chip and with BitLocker enabled, BitLocker requests the keys from the TPM and unlocks the system.
14. You want to protect specific folders on a DVD from unauthorized access. Which of the following is the best choice?
a) NTFS
b) BitLocker Drive Encryption
c) Encrypting File System (EFS)
d) Group Policy
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Encrypting and Compressing Files and Folders
Explanation: Encryption protects the contents of files and folders from unauthorized access. Windows uses Encrypting File System (EFS) to allow users to encrypt information on hard disks, external flash disks, CDs, DVDs, backup tapes, and other types of physical media.
15. Where do you configure the setting to enter Safe Mode the next time the computer starts?
a) System Configuration, Boot tab
b) System Configuration, General tab
c) Services console
d) System Configuration, Startup tab
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding MSCONFIG
Explanation: The options on the Boot tab in System Configuration enable you to adjust boot options, usually for diagnostic purposes. The Boot tab options match the options in the Advanced boot configuration menu that displays when you press F8 at startup. To boot the system into Safe Mode, select the Safe boot check box.
Fill in the Blank
16. An ______________ is a program that runs “on top” of the operating system and helps a user perform a specific task, such as word processing, appointment scheduling, or accounting.
Answer: application
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Installing And Managing Applications
Explanation: Some applications are included with Windows—such as Notepad for simple text editing or Internet Explorer for browsing the Web. Other applications must be licensed from a software publisher, such as Microsoft, Adobe, and Intuit, and then installed on your computer locally or on a server.
17. __________ is the process of decreasing the size of files or folders without affecting the files’ content.
Answer: Compression
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Compression
Explanation: The purpose of compression is to decrease large files that would otherwise use a lot of storage space. Because files often include a lot of redundant, repeated data, compressing them replaces repeated data with pointers to the data. The pointers take up much less space than the repeated data, so the size of the file is reduced.
Short Answer
18. Which feature can you use in Windows 7 Ultimate that encrypts an entire drive rather than individual files and folders on a disk.
Answer: BitLocker Drive Encryption
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding BitLocker
Explanation: BitLocker Drive Encryption is another method of protecting data stored on a fixed drive in a Windows computer. BitLocker encrypts the entire drive, rather than individual files and folders. The complementary BitLocker To Go protects data on removable data drives, such as an external flash drive.
19. What is the difference between encryption and compression?
Answer: Encryption protects files, whereas compression reduces file size.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference:
Explanation: Encryption protects the contents of files and folders from unauthorized access.
Compression is the process of decreasing the size of files or folders without affecting the files’ content.
20. You want to determine if the COM+ Event System service has any dependent services. How do you find this information?
Answer: Open the service’s Properties dialog box and click the Dependencies tab.
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Service Startup Types
Explanation: Open the Services console, and then double-click the COM+ Event Sytem service to open the Properties dialog box. The Dependencies tab shows you which services depend on other services to run. A dependent service starts after the service upon which it depends starts. Stopping a service also stops any other service that depends on it. There are no options available on this tab—it’s informational only. However, before you stop or disable a service on the General tab, you should view the information on the Dependences tab to know which other services might be affected by your change.
Lesson 5: Managing Devices
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following is limited to four basic partitions, and each partition is limited to 2 terabytes (TB) in size?
a) GUID Partition Table (GPT)
b) Mirrored volume
c) Master boot record (MBR)
d) Striped volume
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: MBR partitions are limited to four basic partitions and each partition is limited to 2 terabytes (TB) in size. The four basic partitions can be either four primary partitions or three primary partitions with one extended partition, which can be further divided into multiple logical partitions.
2. You need to determine if a device had a bad device driver. Which of the following is the best choice to use?
a) Disk Manager
b) Driver Manager
c) Device Manager
d) Control Panel
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Device Manager
Explanation: In Device Manager, right-click the device and select Properties. The General tab in the Properties dialog box displays the device type, manufacturer, and the device status. You should see This device is working properly. If the device status indicates a problem, the message typically provides some information as to the nature of the problem and how to resolve it.
3. Which of the following can you create on a dynamic drive? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Striped partition
b) Mirrored partition
c) Striped partition
d) Striped volume
e) Simple volume
f) Spanned volume
Answer: d, e, f
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: With dynamic disks, free space on a hard drive is divided into volumes instead of partitions. Dynamic disks are not limited by partition styles as are basic disks. Dynamic disks can contain simple, spanned, striped, and mirrored volumes.
4. You are installing a new printer and want to use the manufacturer’s management program for the device. What is the best method for installing the printer’s driver and software to ensure you get the latest files?
a) Download the latest software and driver from the manufacturer’s Web site; install like any other program.
b) Let Windows Update install the appropriate software and driver.
c) Install from the CD or DVD that came with the printer.
d) Update the printer driver using Device Manager.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Device Manager
Explanation: Because you want the latest versions of both the printer driver and the manufacturer’s management software, download the software and driver from the manufacturer’s Web site and install them. The manufacturer’s installation program most often installs both at the same time.
5. What feature does Windows Live Mesh offer that Windows SkyDrive does not?
a) 200 GB of free space
b) The ability to sign in using your Live Windows Logon ID
c) The ability to share folders and documents with others
d) Remote control of another machine
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Windows Live Mesh, Windows Live SkyDrive
Explanation: The remote connections feature of Windows Live Mesh allows you to connect to a computer across the Internet and access the data as if you were physically on that computer. Windows Live Mesh requires computers to allow remote connections. Remote connections are encrypted using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), so they are safe to use.
6. You can use Windows Live Mesh to synchronize which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Internet Explorer favorites
b) Files on cell phones
c) Microsoft Office settings
d) Folders on different computers
Answer: a, b, c, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Windows Live Mesh
Explanation: From the Windows Live Mesh Status page, you can synchronize folders, your Internet Explorer favorites, and Microsoft Office settings (such as styles, templates, custom dictionary, and e-mail signatures). You can also go to Windows Live Devices to add more devices, such as computers and mobile devices you want to synchronize with.
7. Which of the following is not true of plug-and-play (PnP) devices?
a) Windows 7 automatically detects connected PnP devices as long as they’re powered on (if necessary)
b) A bubble message appears on the status bar the first time you connect a PnP device stating that the device driver software is being installed.
c) Once PnP device software is installed, the device appears in Device Manager.
d) When you unplug a PnP device and plug it in again, the device driver software installs again.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Plug-and-Play Technology
Explanation: Nearly all modern devices that you attach to a computer port are automatically detected by the operating system. This is part of PnP technology. As long as a PnP device is plugged into your computer and powered on (if the device requires power, like a printer), Windows detects the device and automatically installs the drivers. The first time you connect a device, you should see a bubble message on the status bar that states Installing device driver software. When it installs the device driver successfully, you’ll see Your device is ready to use. The device has now been added to Device Manager. You can unplug the device and plug it in again, but the device driver installs only one time.
8. Which of the following requires its own power connector?
a) FireWire
b) USB
c) eSATA
d) USB 2.0
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA)
Explanation: External Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (eSATA) is an external interface for SATA technologies. eSATA competes with IEEE 1394 (also called FireWire 400) and universal serial bus (USB) 2.0. However, eSATA requires its own power connector, USB, USB 2.0, and FireWire do not.
9. Which configuration stores an exact copy of data from the first member of the volume to the second member?
a) Mirrored
b) Spanned
c) Striped
d) Simple
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: A mirrored volume duplicates data from one disk to a second disk for redundancy and fault tolerance; if one disk fails, data can be accessed from the second disk.
10. After creating a document on Windows Live SkyDrive, which of the following is the easiest way to let someone know a new document available?
a) After sharing the document or folder, send a notification
b) Send the recipient a document with the link embedded
c) Sync your computer with the recipient’s computer
d) Call the person on the phone and tell them the document is available
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Windows Live SkyDrive
Explanation: Each file or folder on SkyDrive has a unique Web address (URL), which makes it easy to paste that link into e-mail messages or other documents for direct access. When sharing a document or folder, you’re prompted to enter the e-mail address of the person you are sharing the resource with. After setting up sharing, the Send a notification for displays to notify the person that he or she has access to the resource. Just click Send to notify the person that the resource is available.
11. Which type of volume should not be used for fault tolerance? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Mirrored
b) Spanned
c) Striped
d) Simple
Answer: b, d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: A simple volumes uses free space available on a single disk; therefore it’s not suitable for fault tolerance. Do not plan to use spanned volumes for fault tolerance. If one disk in the spanned volume fails, all data in the spanned volume is lost unless you have a backup.
12. Where can you pause printing, cancel all documents, and resume or restart a document?
a) Print queue window
b) Printer device Properties dialog box
c) Device Manager
d) Computer Management
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Print Queues
Explanation: The print queue window enables you to pause printing, cancel all documents in the print queue, and restart a document.
13. You can use Device Manager to complete the following tasks except:
a) Update a driver’s software
b) Disable a driver
c) Uninstall a driver
d) Change a device’s hardware ID
e) Scan for hardware changes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Device Manager
Explanation: The Details tab in a device’s Properties dialog box enables you to view information about the device, including the device’s hardware ID. You cannot use Device Manager to change any of the values displayed on the Details tab.
14. When using Microsoft’s free cloud storage solutions, which solution requires software to be installed on the client computer?
a) Windows Live Mesh
b) Windows Live SkyDrive
c) OneNote to SkyDrive
d) Hotmail
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Windows Live Mesh
Explanation: Windows Live Mesh is a part of the Windows Live Essentials suite. Windows Live Mesh enables you to keep data synchronized between computers (and some devices such as mobile phones) as well as some program settings. You need to install Windows Live Mesh on each computer for which you want keep the data synchronized. Windows Live SkyDrive, OneNote to SkyDrive, and Hotmail do not require client installations.
15. The following are quick-start icons in Windows Live SkyDrive except:
a) OneNote
b) Excel
c) Word
d) Outlook
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Explore Windows Live SkyDrive
Explanation: The home page of Windows Live SkyDrive displays quick-start icons to create Word, Excel, PowerPoint, and OneNote documents.
Fill in the Blank
16. _______ and striped volumes must contain at least 2 disks and may contain up to 32.
Answer: Spanned
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: Spanned volumes include two or more disks (up to 32 may be included) that are represented in Windows Explorer as a single drive letter. They are sometimes referred to as fill and spill because all storage space on the first disk must be filled before data is stored on the second and subsequent disks. As with a spanned volume, striped volumes must contain at least two disks and can contain up to 32. But when the data is stored, it is separated into 64 kilobyte (KB) chunks. The first 64 KB is stored on Disk 1 in the striped volume, the second 64 KB chunk is stored on Disk 2, and so on. The data is literally striped across multiple drives.
17. The _____ storage device type is used to transfer data over local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), and the Internet.
Answer: iSCSI
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)
Explanation: Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) connects enterprise network storage devices such as a storage area network (SAN). iSCSI is used to transfer data over local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), and even the Internet.
Short Answer
18. Which Windows utility or feature can you use to determine the version of files that a device driver installs and their complete paths?
Answer: Device Manager
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Device Manager
Explanation: Device Manager enables you to view the version of files that a device driver installs and their complete paths.
19. You run Windows Server 2008 R2 in your organization. You created a Web site hosted by Internet Information Services (IIS) using the Internet Printing role service. You want clients to be able to use a Web browser to connect and print to shared printers on the server using the Internet Printing Protocol (IPP). What must be installed on a client computer to use IPP?
Answer: Internet Printing Client
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Internet Printing
Explanation: Users must have the Internet Printing Client installed on their computers to use IPP.
20. A user’s computer runs Windows 7 and the single hard disk is configured as a dynamic disk. However, he needs access to both Windows 7 and Windows XP on the same computer, so you need to set up a dual-boot environment. What must you do before setting up the dual-boot environment?
Answer: Convert the hard disk from dynamic to basic.
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Disk and Drive Types
Explanation: Windows XP does not support dynamic disks. You would need to convert the hard disk from dynamic to basic. This conversion requires you to delete all volumes first, which deletes the data, so you must back up the data before you begin the conversion.
Lesson 6: Understanding File and Print Sharing
Multiple Choice
1. What do you use to add a printer in Windows 7?
a) Printer troubleshooter
b) Programs and Features
c) Devices and Printers
d) Device Manager
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Setting Up Printer Sharing
Explanation: Windows 7 provides the Devices and Printers applet to let you manage one or more printers from a single interface. From here you can add a printer, see what’s printing, and remove a printer.
2. You shared a folder on your Windows 7 computer with another user. What can you do on the other user’s computer to make it easy for him to access the shared folder?
a) Create a workgroup.
b) Create effective permissions.
c) Create NTFS permissions.
d) Map a drive.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Mapping Drives
Explanation: Once you share a folder or drive on your computer with other users, an easy way for them to get to the shared item is by mapping a drive. A mapped drive is a shortcut to a shared folder or drive on another computer across a network.
3. Of the following network locations in Windows 7, which of the following is considered most unsafe by default?
a) Home
b) Work
c) Public
d) There is not enough information
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding File and Printer Sharing Basics
Explanation: Public networks may be convenient but they are notoriously unsafe, so the Public network location is designed to help protect your computer against unauthorized access and malicious software.
4. Which Windows 7 feature walks you through a series of questions, much like a live technician would, to help you resolve printer and other issues?
a) Create a HomeGroup Wizard
b) Troubleshooter
c) File Sharing Wizard
d) Remote Desktop Connection
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Troubleshooting Printers
Explanation: Windows troubleshooters are wizard-driven tools that walk you through a software or hardware issue to help you resolve it.
5. The following are types of network locations in Windows 7 except:
a) Public
b) Home
c) Work
d) Office
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding File and Printer Sharing Basics
Explanation: Windows 7 includes Home, Work, and Public network locations.
6. Which of the following tasks can you accomplish using the HomeGroup feature? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Share libraries
b) Limit access to shared items to individual users
c) Choose which folders users may access within a library
d) Share attached printers
Answer: a, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding HomeGroup
Explanation: You can easily share libraries and printers using HomeGroup. You can’t limit access to shared items to individual users. Anyone using a computer that’s a member of the homegroup can access the shared content. You also can’t choose which folders within a library a user may or may not access.
7. Which of the following is not true of NTFS permissions?
a) Files and folders moved within the same partition retain their permissions
b) Files and folders moved to a different partition inherit the permissions of the destination folder
c) Copied files and folders inherit permissions of the destination folder
d) Copied files and folders retain permissions of the source folder
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding NTFS, Share, and Effective Permissions
Explanation: Files and folders moved within the same partition retain their permissions. Files and folders moved to a different partition inherit the permissions of the destination folder. Copied files and folders inherit permissions of the destination folder.
8. Windows 7 has the following Public folders by default except:
a) Public Projects
b) Public Documents
c) Public Pictures
d) Public Music
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Using Public Folders
Explanation: Each default library in Windows 7 has Public folders, such as Public Documents, Public Music, Public Pictures, and Public Videos. Windows 7 does not have a Public Projects library by default.
9. Which of the following is not true of homegroups? (Choose all that apply.)
a) The HomeGroup feature in Windows 7 is designed for small office/home office networks.
b) You can join two or more homegroups at a time.
c) When creating a homegroup, you can share libraries but not printers.
d) In Windows 7 Home Basic and Starter editions, you can only join a homegroup—you cannot create one.
Answer: b, c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding HomeGroup
Explanation: HomeGroup is a file and printer sharing feature in Windows 7, designed for small office/home office networks. In Windows 7 Home Basic and Starter editions, you can only join a homegroup—you cannot create one. You can join only one homegroup at a time. If your computer is already joined to a homegroup, you must leave that homegroup to join another.
10. What do you use to view information about a printer’s driver?
a) Printer server properties menu in Devices and Printers
b) Printer troubleshooter
c) Printer’s Properties dialog box, Software tab
d) Printer’s Properties dialog box, Sharing tab
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Print Drivers
Explanation: One way to view a printer’s driver information is by using the Printer server properties menu in Devices and Printers. The Drivers tab in the Printer Server Properties dialog box lists all printers installed on the computer.
11. You want to allow users to view and change files and folders, create new files and folders, and run programs in a folder. Which permission do you assign?
a) Modify
b) Write
c) Full control
d) Read and execute
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Permissions
Explanation: Regarding basic file and folder permissions in Windows 7, the Full control permission allows users to view and change files and folders, to create new files and folders, and to run programs in a folder.
12. Which of the following is a legitimate method of updating a printer driver? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Run the Add Printer Driver Wizard
b) Let Windows Update install the driver
c) Printing a document will automatically trigger a driver update
d) Download and install the new driver from the manufacturer’s Web site
Answer: a, b, d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Print Drivers
Explanation: Windows Update checks for new drivers for many devices and installs them during regular updates. However, sometimes you must manually update a driver. (Windows Update might not have a driver for a specific printer due to compatibility issues, for example, or because the manufacturer recently released a driver that’s not yet part of Windows Update.) One method is to use the Add Printer Driver Wizard. Sometimes it’s best to visit the manufacturer’s Web site, locate the latest driver for your printer, and download it. In most cases, the driver comes with an installer program, allowing you to double-click the EXE file and install the driver.
13. In a file system, what is a folder called that contains subfolders?
a) Domain
b) Child
c) Parent
d) Effective
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding NTFS, Share, and Effective Permissions
Explanation: In a file system, a folder with subfolders is considered the parent folder. The subfolders are considered child folders. After you set permissions on a parent folder, new files and subfolders that are created in the folder inherit these permissions.
14. What do you use to turn Public folders on or off in Windows 7?
a) The Computer window
b) Advanced sharing settings
c) Devices and Printers window
d) Network and Sharing window
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using Public Folders
Explanation: Public folder sharing in Windows 7 is turned off by default (except on a homegroup). When Public folder sharing is turned on, anyone on your computer or network can access these folders. You use Advanced sharing settings to turn Public folders on or off.
15. Your small peer-to-peer network includes Windows 7 and Windows XP clients. Which of the following should you use to set up file sharing?
a) A workgroup
b) A domain
c) Public folders
d) HomeGroup
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding File and Printer Sharing Basics
Explanation: If your peer-to-peer network includes a mix of computers running Windows 7 and Windows Vista or Windows XP, and you want to share files between the computers, you should use a workgroup.
Fill in the Blank
16. _______ permissions apply to users who log on locally or by using Remote Desktop.
Answer: NTFS
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding NTFS, Share, and Effective Permissions
Explanation: Share permissions apply to users who connect to a shared folder over a network; NTFS permissions apply to users who log on locally, from across a network, or by using Remote Desktop.
17. __________ allows you to share files, folders, or an entire drive, set permissions on shared files and folders (Read, Change, or Full Control), and more.
Answer: Advanced sharing
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Using Basic and Advanced Shares
Explanation: Advanced sharing offers more control over basic sharing. With advanced sharing, you can:
• Share files, folders, or an entire drive
• Choose users or groups with which to share files and folders
• Limit the number of users who may use a file or folder at the same time, mainly for security purposes
• Set permissions on shared files and folders, such as allowing users Read, Change, or Full Control
Short Answer
18. You are attempting to map a network drive. Drive letters A through F are already in use. Which drive letter can you use for the new drive mapping?
Answer: Any drive letter from G through Z.
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Mapping Drives
Explanation: By default in Windows 7, network drive letters start from the back of the alphabet (Z: is the first default drive letter that displays) and work down, so as not to interfere with local drives (which start with A: and work up). When mapping a drive, you can select any drive letter that’s not already in use.
19. What type of permissions are granted to a user or group based on the permissions granted through group membership and any permissions inherited from the parent object?
Answer: Effective
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding NTFS, Share, and Effective Permissions
Explanation: Effective permissions for an object, such as a folder, are permissions granted to a user or group based on the permissions granted through group membership and any permissions inherited from the parent object. Windows does not include share permissions as part of the effective permissions.
20. Regarding NTFS permission, what happens to the permissions of files when you move them to a folder on a different volume?
Answer: The files inherit the permissions of the destination folder.
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding NTFS, Share, and Effective Permissions
Explanation: When you move files and folders to a different volume, the files and folders inherit the permissions of the destination folder.
Lesson 7: Maintaining, Updating and Protecting Windows 7
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following provides hotfixes and service packs for Windows computers?
a) Device Manager
b) Windows Update
c) Task Scheduler
d) Action Center
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Updating the System
Explanation: Keeping a Windows system patched and updated is vitally important to maintaining proper security. Microsoft provides regularly scheduled updates in the form of hotfixes and service packs via the Windows Update feature, along with critical updates as they come up.
2. What moves sectors of data on the hard disk, thus improving your computer’s performance?
a) Task Scheduler
b) Registry Editor
c) Disk Defragmenter
d) Disk Cleanup
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Disk Defragmenter
Explanation: Disk Defragmenter is a utility that helps improve your computer’s performance by moving sectors of data on the hard disk, so that files are stored sequentially. This minimizes the movement a hard disk’s arm must make to read all of the sectors that make up a file or program.
3. Which program do you launch to view and back up the Windows registry?
a) MSCONFIG
b) cmd.exe
c) regedit.exe
d) mseinstall.exe
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Maintaining the Windows Registry
Explanation: You use the Registry Editor utility (regedit.exe) to make changes to the registry and back it up.
4. Which scan is not available in Windows Defender or Microsoft Security Essentials?
a) Custom
b) Full
c) Quick
d) Partial
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Windows Defender, Understanding Microsoft Security Essentials
Explanation: You can run quick, full, and custom scans in Windows Defender and Microsoft Security Essentials. A partial scan is not an option in either program.
5. Which of the following is a collection of updates from Microsoft since the last version of Windows or another Microsoft product was released?
a) Action Center
b) Patch
c) Hotfix
d) Service pack
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Updating the System
Explanation: A Windows service pack is a collection of updates and hotfixes since the product was released. The product might be the operating system or Microsoft software.
6. Which of the following is not true of Disk Defragmenter?
a) It moves sectors of data on a hard disk, so that files are stored sequentially.
b) Disk Defragmenter first analyzes your hard disk to determine the level of fragmentation, and then it defragments the disk if necessary.
c) Solid state drives (SSDs) must be defragmented but in a different way than hard disks.
d) In Windows 7, Disk Defragmenter is scheduled to run once a week by default.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Disk Defragmenter
Explanation: An SSD uses solid state memory to store data rather than writing data to sectors. Therefore, an SSD does not need to be defragmented.
7. Which of the following is not part of the Maintenance section of Action Center? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Check for updates
b) Backup
c) Virus protection
d) Check for solutions to problem reports
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Action Center
Explanation: Virus protection software is tracked in the Security section of Action Center. The Maintenance section of Action Center includes the following:
• Check for solutions to problem reports
• Backup
• Check for updates
• Troubleshooting: System Maintenance
8. What Task Scheduler command creates a task using a wizard?
a) Create Task
b) Create Basic Task
c) Create Scheduled Task
d) Create Task Automatically
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Task Scheduler
Explanation: The Actions pane of Task Scheduler includes two commands for creating tasks. The Create Basic Task command starts the Create Basic Task Wizard, which walks you through the essentials of creating a task. The Create Task command displays the Create Task dialog box, which is the manual way of creating task but gives you more control and options.
9. Which of the following is not tracked in Security section of Action Center?
a) Firewall
b) Windows Update
c) Virus protection
d) Backups
e) Internet security settings
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Action Center
Explanation: Action Center tracks seven security features: Network firewall, Windows Update, virus protection, spyware and unwanted software protection, Internet security settings, User Account Control, and Network Access Protection (NAP).
10. Action Center displays an X under the flag on the taskbar when Action Center detects a maintenance or security issue that needs your attention. What color is the X?
a) Yellow
b) White
c) Red
d) Orange
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Action Center
Explanation: You might not need to visit Action Center very often; you might need to visit only when an issue occurs. Windows 7 notifies you of any pending issues by displaying a red X under the flag in the notification area.
11. Which program is always updated on Patch Tuesday?
a) Malicious Software Removal Tool
b) Microsoft Security Essentials
c) Windows Firewall
d) Windows Defender
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using the Malicious Software Removal Tool
Explanation: Microsoft releases an updated version of the Malicious Software Removal Tool on Patch Tuesday each month, or more often if security threats are detected before the next Patch Tuesday updates.
12. Your computer is infected with MyDoom. Which tool should you use to remove it?
a) Malicious Software Removal Tool
b) Task Scheduler
c) Windows Firewall
d) Windows Defender
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Using the Malicious Software Removal Tool
Explanation: Computers can become infected even with the best protection software running in the background. If you know your computer is infected with malware, such as Blaster, Mydoom, EyeStyle, or Poison, download and run the Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool. This utility scans your computer for dangerous malware and attempts to remove it immediately.
13. By default, Disk Defragmenter runs on what schedule?
a) Once a month
b) Biweekly
c) Once a week
d) Every day
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Disk Defragmenter
Explanation: In Windows 7, Disk Defragmenter is scheduled to run once a week by default.
14. Which system does Microsoft Forefront Endpoint Protection require?
a) Windows Server 2008 R2
b) System Center Configuration Manager
c) Windows 7
d) Windows Server 2008 R2 or later versions
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Windows Forefront Endpoint Protection
Explanation: Forefront Endpoint Protection 2010 requires a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 site that has Forefront Endpoint Protection Server installed.
15. Which of the following lets a user easily delete unnecessary files from a computer?
a) Task Scheduler
b) Registry Editor
c) Disk Defragmenter
d) Disk Cleanup
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Disk Cleanup
Explanation: Disk Cleanup helps you remove unnecessary files from your computer, such as downloaded program files, temporary Internet files and those that are left after running software, and much more.
Fill in the Blank
16. The _________ is a database in Windows that stores user preferences, file locations, program configuration settings, startup information, hardware settings, and more.
Answer: Windows registry
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Maintaining the Windows Registry
Explanation: The Windows registry is a database in Windows that stores user preferences, file locations, program configuration settings, startup information, hardware settings, and more. In addition, the registry stores the associations between file types and the applications that use them.
17. In Task Scheduler, a(n) _______ is an event that causes a task to run.
Answer: trigger
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Task Scheduler
Explanation: Task Scheduler enables you to schedule and automate a variety of actions, such starting programs, displaying messages, and even sending e-mails. You create a scheduled task by specifying a trigger, which is an event that causes a task to run, and an action, which is the action taken when the task runs.
Short Answer
18. You run a small office with eight computers. You want to use Microsoft Security Essentials to protect the computer from viruses and other malware. How many computers can you run the software on for free?
Answer: 10 computers
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Microsoft Security Essentials
Explanation: You can run Microsoft Security Essentials for free on up to 10 computers. If you have more than 10 client computers to protect in your organization, Microsoft recommends that you use Forefront Endpoint Protection rather than Microsoft Security Essentials.
19. What is the primary difference between Windows Update and Microsoft Update?
Answer: Microsoft Update delivers updates for Microsoft software in addition to the Windows operating system.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Updating the System
Explanation: Microsoft provides regularly scheduled updates to the Windows operating system via the Windows Update feature. Microsoft Update delivers updates for Microsoft software in addition to the Windows operating system.
20. You’re running Windows 7 Professional with Windows Firewall. You’ve verified that the Internet connection is working properly on both computers. However, when you try to connect to another computer via Remote Desktop, the connection is blocked. What can you do in Windows Firewall to unblock the connection?
Answer: Use the the Allow a program or feature through Windows Firewall command in the task pane on the Windows Firewall page.
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Windows Firewall
Explanation: Open the Windows Firewall page, and then click the Allow a program or feature through Windows Firewall command in the task pane. In the Allowed Programs page, click the Change settings button. Click the Allow another program button. Scroll the list to locate the program, select it, click Add, and then click OK.
Lesson 8: Understanding Backup and Recovery Methods
Multiple Choice
1. Which versions of Windows 7 enables you to back up data to a network drive? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Starter
b) Home Premium
c) Professional
d) Ultimate
e) Enterprise
Answer: c, d, e
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Local, Network, and Automated Backup Methods
Explanation: Only Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions enable you to back up your files to a network.
2. Using Windows Backup in Windows 7 Professional, you can store backed up data on which of the following? (Choose all that apply.)
a) The same drive you are backing up
b) A CD/DVD
c) A tape drive
d) A USB drive
e) Another internal hard disk
f) A network drive
Answer: b, d, e, f
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Understanding Local, Network, and Automated Backup Methods
Explanation: You can store backups on CD/DVD, to another internal disk, to an external drive, or to a network drive. If you’re using an external drive that's a universal serial bus (USB) drive, you must have enough storage space to store your backup. Tape drives are no longer supported for storage of your backups.
3. Which of the following is not true of backups in Windows 7?
a) Windows backups are enabled by default.
b) To store a backup on a network location you need to provide a Universal Naming Convention (UNC) or network path.
c) Windows backups can back up data from drives formatted as NTFS.
d) You must be logged on as an administrator or a member of the Backup Operators group to back up a computer or data.
e) You can control how much hard drive space backups can use.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Local, Network, and Automated Backup Methods
Explanation: All of the following are true except for answer choice “a.” Windows backups are disabled by default.
4. What can you not include in a Windows 7 system image backup?
a) Local user data
b) Data stored on a network server
c) The operating system
d) All drives
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Creating a System Image
Explanation: A system image is an image of an entire hard drive that includes all files needed to restore your operating system. By default, a system image includes the Windows folder, all system settings, programs, and files. You cannot include network drives in a system image file created in Windows 7.
5. Your computer has been crashing two or three times a day. You performed a system restore from a restore point, but now the computer won’t boot. What should you do to be able to use the computer again? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Restart the machine
b) Manually delete all files that changed
c) Roll back to another restore point
d) Undo the System Restore
Answer: c, d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding System Restore
Explanation: In this case, you should try rolling back to another restore point. This might fix the problem entirely. At a minimum, undo the System Restore to be able to use the computer, even though you must still address the intermittent crashes.
6. What happens if you run out of disk space while creating a system image backup?
a) The process fails
b) You are prompted to delete files
c) Temporary files and folders are deleted to make room for the new system image
d) Older system images are deleted to make room for the new system images
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Creating a System Image
Explanation: If you are storing your system images on an internal or external hard drive and you begin to run out of space, older system image backups will be deleted to make room for the new backups. If you are storing your system image backups to a network location only one is saved. This is because the backup utility creates a folder named \WindowsImageBackup\ and within that folder each system image backup is named based on the name of the computer storing the system image backup. So each time a new backup is created the old one is overwritten.
7. When scheduling automatic backups in Windows Backup, which of the following is not available to customize on the scheduling page? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Whether daily, weekly or monthly
b) Specific files to back up
c) The time of the backup
d) The day of the week
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Local, Network, and Automated Backup Methods
Explanation: Although you can choose which files and folders to back up in Windows Backup, you cannot select them when scheduling automatic backups.
8. Which of the following can not be used to perform a system restore?
a) System repair disc
b) Preinstalled recovery options
c) Command prompt
d) Recovery applet in Control Panel
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding System Restore
Explanation: There are three methods for restoring a system image:
• Restoring a system image using the Recovery applet in Control Panel
• Restoring a system image using preinstalled recovery options
• Restoring a system image using a Windows installation or system repair disc.
9. When restoring a file using the Previous Versions feature, the permissions are set to which of the following?
a) Whatever you set them to be
b) Original permissions
c) Full control to the user who is restoring the file
d) Permissions of the user restoring the file
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Restore from a Backup
Explanation: If you choose to restore a document, it will be restored to its original location with its original permissions. If you want to restore the file to a new location, click the Copy button and browse to the folder where you want to store the file. The permissions will be inherited from the folder into which you paste the copied file.
10. You need to repair missing or corrupt system files but are not sure which files are needed. Which of the following is the best choice?
a) Restore from a Windows backup
b) System image restore
c) System repair disc
d) Boot into Safe Mode
Answer: c
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Creating a Repair Disc
Explanation: The system repair disc is the easiest and perhaps quickest way to repair missing or corrupt system files. Because you don’t know which files are missing or corrupt, you can’t restore a Windows backup efficiently. Restoring from a system image is unnecessary and will overwrite everything on the system. Booting into Safe Mode will not repair the files.
11. Which methods can you use to access the recovery boot options? (Choose all that apply.)
a) Press F8 during the boot process
b) Use the Backup and Restore tool
c) Use Administrative Tools
d) Boot from a Windows Installation disc
Answer: a, d
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Recovery Boot Options
Explanation: Press F8 during the boot process or booting from a Windows Installation disc should give you access to the recovery boot options.
12. Which of the following recovery boot options runs only on a domain controller (DC) and does nothing for Windows 7?
a) Directory Services Restore Mode
b) Disable Driver Signature enforcement
c) Enable Low-resolution Video
d) Safe Mode
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Recovery Boot Options
Explanation: Directory Services Restore Mode is used only on DCs, allowing administrators to repair Active Directory settings on a DC that is having issues.
13. Which recovery boot option should you avoid using if the computer you are attempting to boot has been infected by a virus?
a) Repair Your Computer
b) Safe Mode
c) Safe Mode with Command Prompt
d) Safe Mode with Networking
Answer: d
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Recovery Boot Options
Explanation: Safe Mode with Networking provides you with access to the standard Safe Mode options but also loads networking drivers so you can access resources on the network or the Internet. Avoid using this option if you are trying to repair the damage done by a virus because, in some cases, the infection can spread to network resources.
14. Which of the following is not true of system images?
a) The Windows Backup page includes a Create a system image link in the left pane.
b) You can restore individual data files from a system image backup.
c) You cannot select what gets restored from a system image.
d) You can create a system image as part of the Windows Backup process.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Creating a System Image, Understanding Local, Network, and Automated Backup Methods
Explanation: You cannot restore individual data files from a system image backup—you must restore everything in a system image.
15. You have enabled boot logging and now need to find the text file that contains your driver information. Where should you look?
a) C:\Windows folder for a file named ntbtlog.txt
b) C:\Windows folder for a file named ntdriver.txt
c) Device Manager
d) System Restore dialog box
Answer: a
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Understanding Recovery Boot Options
Explanation: The Enable Boot Logging recovery option boots Windows into a normal mode and creates a text file that lists all drivers loaded (or not loaded) during startup. The file will be named ntbtlog.txt and stored in the C:\Windows folder (or whichever drive you installed Windows on).
Fill in the Blank
16. You can use a _______ to roll back your system to an earlier point in time.
Answer: restore point
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Using System Restore
Explanation: System Restore uses the System Protection feature to create restore points. Restore points can be used to roll back your system to an earlier point in time; they are created automatically on a weekly basis and any time you make a change to your computer (such as installing a new application or device driver).
17. Enabling Windows Backup also enables the ___________ service, which is what allows you to create restore points and backups of your system.
Answer: Volume Shadow Copy
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Create a Backup
Explanation: If Windows Backup is not enabled, you must turn it on to create backups. Enabling Windows Backup also enables the Volume Shadow Copy service, which is what allows you to create restore points and backups of your system.
Short Answer
18. You are preparing to install a legacy program on your computer. Your data is backed up. What should you do to ensure you can recover from any problems the legacy software might introduce?
Answer: Create a restore point.
Difficulty: Easy
Section Reference: Using System Restore
Explanation: Anytime you are not sure about the potential impact of a change you are making to a computer, you should create a system restore. It is better to have a system restore and not need it than to need one and not have it.
19. A new device driver has been added and the system is not responding. What should you select in the Advanced Boot Options menu to try to diagnose and resolve the problem?
Answer: Choose either Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Networking in the Advanced Boot Options menu.
Difficulty: Medium
Section Reference: Understanding Recovery Boot Options
Explanation: Choose either Safe Mode or Safe Mode with Networking in the Advanced Boot Options menu. Safe Mode starts Windows 7 in a limited state that loads only basic files and drivers. Tools that help you diagnose or resolve issues when in Safe Mode include System Recovery (to use a restore point), Control Panel, Device Manager, Event Viewer, System Information, and Registry Editor (to edit the registry). Safe Mode with Networking provides you with access to the standard Safe Mode options but also loads networking drivers so you can access resources on the network or the Internet.
20. Your computer no longer functions properly and constantly crashes. You tried rolling back to each restore point, used the system repair disc, and performed other repair methods but nothing has worked. What should you do?
Answer: Back up data and reinstall Windows.
Difficulty: Hard
Section Reference: Perform an Advanced Recovery
Explanation: You should back up all data and reinstall Windows. One method is to open the Recovery applet in Control Panel and use the “Reinstall Windows” advanced recovery method. The Reinstall Windows option requires the Windows installation disc. This option sets the machine back to factory defaults (before you installed any applications or created any folders/files). If you have a backup, you can reinstall Windows and then restore your files from a backup.
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